HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A client with a history of hypertension is taking a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the LPN/LVN monitor for in this client?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Insomnia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bradycardia. Beta-blockers are medications that can lower heart rate, leading to bradycardia as a potential side effect. It is essential for the LPN/LVN to monitor for this adverse effect due to the medication's mechanism of action. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, and insomnia are not typically associated with beta-blocker use. Monitoring for bradycardia is crucial to ensure patient safety and to prevent any potential complications.
2. A nurse in a provider's office is assessing the deep tendon reflexes of a client. Which of the following techniques should the nurse identify as indicating the correct method for eliciting the client's patellar reflex?
- A. Tap just below the knee
- B. Tap on the upper thigh
- C. Tap on the ankle
- D. Tap on the lower leg
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct technique for eliciting the client's patellar reflex is to tap just below the knee. This action stimulates the stretch receptors in the patellar tendon, leading to a reflex contraction of the quadriceps muscle and extension of the lower leg. Tapping on the upper thigh (Choice B) would not elicit the patellar reflex as it targets a different area. Similarly, tapping on the ankle (Choice C) or tapping on the lower leg (Choice D) would not produce the desired response associated with the patellar reflex, making them incorrect choices.
3. A nurse is teaching an older adult client who has type 2 diabetes mellitus about how to care for corns and calluses on her toes. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I can place an oval corn pad over toes that have corns as long as I remove the pad weekly
- B. I should soak my feet in warm water daily to soften corns and calluses
- C. I can apply lotion to soften calluses as long as I don’t put lotion between my toes
- D. I should use an over the counter liquid medication to remove corns
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Applying lotion to the feet, avoiding between toes, is correct; over-the-counter treatments and soaking are not recommended.
4. A patient with stomatitis is receiving oral care education from a nurse. Which instructions will the nurse provide?
- A. Avoid commercial mouthwashes.
- B. Avoid normal saline rinses.
- C. Brush with a hard toothbrush.
- D. Brush with an alcohol-based toothpaste.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a patient with stomatitis is to avoid commercial mouthwashes. Commercial mouthwashes often contain alcohol and other ingredients that can irritate the already inflamed oral mucosa in patients with stomatitis. Avoiding commercial mouthwashes helps prevent further irritation and discomfort. Choice B is incorrect because normal saline rinses are gentle and can help soothe the oral mucosa in patients with stomatitis. Choice C is incorrect because a soft toothbrush should be used to prevent further irritation or injury to the gums. Choice D is incorrect because an alcohol-based toothpaste can be too harsh and drying for patients with stomatitis.
5. A client with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulation therapy. Which of the following laboratory values would be most concerning?
- A. INR of 1.5
- B. Platelet count of 200,000/mm³
- C. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL
- D. aPTT of 70 seconds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An INR of 1.5 is below the therapeutic range for clients on anticoagulation therapy, increasing the risk of clot formation. A lower INR indicates inadequate anticoagulation, which can lead to thrombus formation and potential complications such as progression or recurrence of deep vein thrombosis. Platelet count, hemoglobin level, and aPTT are important parameters to monitor in a client with DVT. However, in this scenario, the most concerning value is the suboptimal INR level because it signifies a lack of anticoagulation effectiveness and poses a higher risk of clotting issues.
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