Nursing Elites

1. During preoperative teaching, a client in a surgeon’s office expresses intent to prepare advance directives before surgery. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of advance directives?

• A. “I’d prefer my brother to make decisions, but I understand it must be my wife.”
• B. “I understand the surgery won’t proceed unless I fill out these forms.”
• C. “I plan to specify my wish to avoid being kept on a breathing machine.”
• D. “I will have my primary doctor review my plan before submitting it at the hospital.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. This statement reflects the client's understanding of advance directives, as it indicates a specific preference regarding life-sustaining treatment. Advance directives enable individuals to outline their healthcare preferences, including decisions about treatments they wish to receive or avoid. Choice A mentions family members but doesn't address specific healthcare wishes; choice B focuses on the surgery rather than personal directives; choice D discusses doctor approval but lacks details about the directive itself.

2. A client is grieving the loss of her partner and expresses thoughts of not wanting to live. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Request additional support for the client from her family.
• B. Ask the client if she plans to harm herself.
• C. Inform the client that feeling this way is a normal response to grief.
• D. Suggest that the client seek counseling for support.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to ask the client if she plans to harm herself. This is crucial to assess the client's risk of self-harm or suicide. Providing immediate safety and appropriate interventions is the priority when a client expresses such thoughts. Requesting additional support from the family (Choice A) may be helpful but does not address the immediate safety concern. Informing the client that feeling this way is normal (Choice C) may invalidate her feelings and does not address the safety risk. Suggesting counseling (Choice D) may be beneficial in the long term but is not the immediate priority when assessing for self-harm or suicide risk.

3. The patient diagnosed with athlete's foot (tinea pedis) states that he is relieved because it is only athlete's foot, and it can be treated easily. Which information about this condition should the nurse consider when formulating a response to the patient?

• A. It is contagious with frequent recurrences.
• B. It is most helpful to air-dry feet after bathing.
• C. It is treated with salicylic acid.
• D. It is caused by lice.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Athlete's foot, also known as tinea pedis, is a contagious fungal infection that can easily spread to other body parts, particularly the hands. It often recurs if not properly treated, making choice A the correct answer. Choices B and C are incorrect because while it is beneficial to air-dry feet after bathing to prevent moisture buildup, athlete's foot is commonly treated with antifungal medications, not salicylic acid. Choice D is incorrect because athlete's foot is caused by a fungal infection, not lice.

4. A nurse in a health clinic is caring for a 20-year-old client who tells the nurse that their last physical exam was in high school. Which of the following health screenings should the nurse expect the provider to perform for this client?

• A. Testicular examination
• B. Blood glucose
• C. Fecal occult blood
• D. Prostate-specific antigen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A testicular examination is appropriate for a 20-year-old male to screen for testicular cancer, which is more common in younger age groups. Testicular cancer is most frequently diagnosed in individuals between the ages of 15 and 40. Blood glucose screening is typically recommended for older individuals or those at risk for diabetes. Fecal occult blood testing is used for colorectal cancer screening, usually starting at age 50. Prostate-specific antigen testing is commonly considered for prostate cancer screening in older males, typically around age 50. Therefore, the most appropriate screening for the 20-year-old client is the testicular examination.

5. A client has extracellular fluid volume deficit. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Postural hypotension
• B. Distended neck veins
• C. Dependent edema
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Postural hypotension is a common sign of extracellular fluid volume deficit due to decreased blood volume, leading to a drop in blood pressure upon standing. Distended neck veins, dependent edema, and bradycardia are not typically associated with extracellular fluid volume deficit. Distended neck veins are more indicative of fluid volume overload, dependent edema is a sign of fluid retention, and bradycardia is not a common finding in extracellular fluid volume deficit.

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