Nursing Elites

1. During preoperative teaching, a client in a surgeon’s office expresses intent to prepare advance directives before surgery. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of advance directives?

• A. “I’d prefer my brother to make decisions, but I understand it must be my wife.”
• B. “I understand the surgery won’t proceed unless I fill out these forms.”
• C. “I plan to specify my wish to avoid being kept on a breathing machine.”
• D. “I will have my primary doctor review my plan before submitting it at the hospital.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. This statement reflects the client's understanding of advance directives, as it indicates a specific preference regarding life-sustaining treatment. Advance directives enable individuals to outline their healthcare preferences, including decisions about treatments they wish to receive or avoid. Choice A mentions family members but doesn't address specific healthcare wishes; choice B focuses on the surgery rather than personal directives; choice D discusses doctor approval but lacks details about the directive itself.

2. A nurse observes a family member administer a rectal suppository by having the client lie on the left side for the administration. The family member pushed the suppository until the finger went up to the second knuckle. After 10 minutes, the client was told by the family member to turn to the right side. What is the appropriate comment for the nurse to make?

• A. Why don’t we now have the client turn back to the left side?
• B. That was done correctly. Did you have any problems with the insertion?
• C. Let’s check to see if the suppository is in far enough.
• D. Did you feel any stool in the intestinal tract?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer because the family member's actions in administering the rectal suppository were correct. Providing positive feedback and asking if there were any problems with the insertion is an appropriate response. Choice A is incorrect because there is no need to have the client turn back to the left side after the suppository has been administered. Choice C is incorrect as there is no indication that the suppository was not inserted correctly, so there is no need to check if it is in far enough. Choice D is incorrect because feeling stool in the intestinal tract is not relevant to the administration of a rectal suppository.

3. A nurse in a provider's office is collecting information from an older adult who reports that he has been taking acetaminophen 500 mg/day for severe joint pain. The nurse should instruct the client that large doses of acetaminophen could cause which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Liver damage
• B. Renal failure
• C. Gastric bleeding
• D. Heart attack

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: Large doses of acetaminophen can cause liver damage, which is a known adverse effect of the medication. Acetaminophen is metabolized in the liver, and excessive amounts can overwhelm the liver's ability to process it, leading to hepatotoxicity. Renal failure (Choice B) is not typically associated with acetaminophen use. Gastric bleeding (Choice C) is more commonly linked to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) rather than acetaminophen. Heart attack (Choice D) is not a recognized adverse effect of acetaminophen, which primarily affects the liver when taken in large amounts.

4. During passive range of motion (ROM) and splinting, the absence of which finding will indicate goal achievement for these interventions?

• A. Atelectasis
• B. Renal calculi
• C. Pressure ulcers
• D. Joint contractures

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Joint contractures. When a healthcare provider performs passive ROM and splinting on a patient, the goal is to prevent joint contractures. Joint contractures result from immobility and can lead to permanent stiffness and decreased range of motion. Atelectasis (choice A) is a condition where there is a complete or partial collapse of the lung, commonly due to immobility, but not directly related to passive ROM or splinting. Renal calculi (choice B) are kidney stones and are not typically associated with ROM exercises. Pressure ulcers (choice C) result from prolonged pressure on the skin and are prevented by repositioning the patient, not specifically addressed by ROM and splinting exercises.

5. A self-sufficient bedridden patient is unable to reach all body parts. Which type of bath will the nurse assign to the nursing assistive personnel?

• A. Bag bath
• B. Sponge bath
• C. Partial bed bath
• D. Complete bed bath

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is a partial bed bath (Choice C). A partial bed bath involves washing body parts that the patient cannot reach on their own, such as the back. It also includes providing assistance with a backrub to promote circulation and skin integrity. In this scenario, where the patient is bedridden and unable to reach all body parts, a partial bed bath is the most appropriate as it focuses on areas the patient cannot clean themselves. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a bag bath involves using premoistened disposable cloths for bathing, a sponge bath involves using a basin of water and a sponge for cleansing, and a complete bed bath involves washing the entire body, including areas the patient can reach, which are not necessary in this case.

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