Nursing Elites

1. During preoperative teaching, a client in a surgeon’s office expresses intent to prepare advance directives before surgery. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of advance directives?

• A. “I’d prefer my brother to make decisions, but I understand it must be my wife.”
• B. “I understand the surgery won’t proceed unless I fill out these forms.”
• C. “I plan to specify my wish to avoid being kept on a breathing machine.”
• D. “I will have my primary doctor review my plan before submitting it at the hospital.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. This statement reflects the client's understanding of advance directives, as it indicates a specific preference regarding life-sustaining treatment. Advance directives enable individuals to outline their healthcare preferences, including decisions about treatments they wish to receive or avoid. Choice A mentions family members but doesn't address specific healthcare wishes; choice B focuses on the surgery rather than personal directives; choice D discusses doctor approval but lacks details about the directive itself.

2. A client with a history of asthma is experiencing shortness of breath. What is the most appropriate action for the LPN/LVN to take first?

• A. Administer a bronchodilator as prescribed.
• B. Encourage the client to practice deep breathing exercises.
• C. Position the client in high Fowler's position.
• D. Obtain a peak flow reading.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator as prescribed is the most appropriate initial action for managing asthma-related shortness of breath. Bronchodilators help to open up the airways quickly, providing relief for the client. Encouraging deep breathing exercises may be beneficial in some situations but should not be the first action for acute shortness of breath in asthma. Positioning the client in high Fowler's position can also help improve breathing, but administering the bronchodilator takes precedence. Obtaining a peak flow reading is important in asthma management, but it is not the initial action needed to address acute shortness of breath.

3. When a healthcare professional makes an initial assessment of a client who is post-op following gastric resection, the client's NG tube is not draining. The healthcare professional's attempt to irrigate the tube with 10ml of 0.9% NaCl was unsuccessful, so they determine that the tube was obstructed. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider.
• B. Attempt to irrigate the tube with a larger volume of saline.
• C. Replace the NG tube with a new one.
• D. Reposition the client to see if that helps the tube drain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: If an NG tube is obstructed and cannot be irrigated successfully, notifying the healthcare provider is the appropriate action to take for further management. This is crucial as the healthcare provider may need to assess the situation, provide guidance, or intervene with specific interventions. Attempting to irrigate the tube with a larger volume of saline (Choice B) may exacerbate the situation if the tube is truly obstructed. Replacing the NG tube with a new one (Choice C) should not be the initial action unless advised by the healthcare provider. Repositioning the client (Choice D) may not necessarily resolve the tube obstruction and should not be the primary intervention in this scenario.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a young adult client. Which of the following injection sites is the safest for this client?

• A. Ventrogluteal
• B. Dorsogluteal
• C. Deltoid
• D. Vastus lateralis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is considered the safest for intramuscular injections in young adult clients due to its location away from major nerves and blood vessels. The ventrogluteal site is preferred over the dorsogluteal site, as the latter is associated with a higher risk of injury to the sciatic nerve. The deltoid site is commonly used for vaccines but may not be suitable for all intramuscular injections due to smaller muscle mass. The vastus lateralis site is often used in infants and young children, but in young adults, the ventrogluteal site is preferred for safety and efficacy.

5. A male client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline tells the nurse that he understands he is to take three doses of the medication each day. Since timed-release capsules are not available at the time of discharge, which dosing schedule should the LPN advise the client to follow?

• A. 9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.
• B. 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight.
• C. Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner.
• D. With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct dosing schedule for the client to follow is to take the medication at 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight. This timing spaces the doses evenly over the waking hours, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication. Choice A (9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.) does not evenly distribute the doses throughout the day. Choices C (Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner) and D (With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner) do not provide the required frequency of dosing needed for optimal therapeutic effect.

Similar Questions