Nursing Elites

1. A client with an aggressive form of prostate cancer declines to discuss concerns after the provider briefly discusses treatment options and leaves the room. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. “I am available to talk if you should change your mind.”
• B. “I understand you do not want to discuss it further.”
• C. “You should talk to the provider if you have more questions.”
• D. “I will be back later to discuss your concerns.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should offer support without pressuring the client. Stating, “I am available to talk if you should change your mind,” acknowledges the client's decision while leaving the door open for future discussions. Choice B is incorrect as it assumes the client's decision is final without offering further support. Choice C directs the client back to the provider without addressing the nurse's availability. Choice D commits to a future discussion without considering the client's current preference.

2. A parent asks a nurse about his infant's expected physical development during the first year of life. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. A 10-month-old infant can pull up to a standing position.
• B. A 6-month-old infant can walk with assistance.
• C. A 12-month-old infant can jump with both feet.
• D. An 8-month-old infant can crawl on hands and knees.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. By 10 months, infants can typically pull up to a standing position as part of their physical development. Walking with assistance usually begins around 9-12 months, not at 6 months (choice B). Jumping with both feet is a skill that usually develops around 24 months, not at 12 months (choice C). Crawling on hands and knees typically starts around 6-9 months, not at 8 months (choice D). Therefore, the most accurate information to include for an infant's expected physical development at 10 months is the ability to pull up to a standing position.

3. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?

• A. Blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg
• B. Irregular heart rhythm
• C. Shortness of breath
• D. Fatigue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Shortness of breath is the most concerning assessment finding in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation. It can indicate a worsening of the condition, pulmonary edema, or the development of a complication such as heart failure. A blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg, while elevated, is not as immediately concerning as respiratory distress in this context. An irregular heart rhythm is expected in atrial fibrillation and may not necessarily be a new or concerning finding. Fatigue is a common symptom in atrial fibrillation but is not as acutely concerning as shortness of breath, which may indicate compromised oxygenation and circulation.

4. The healthcare professional is preparing to administer a medication through a nasogastric (NG) tube. Which action should the healthcare professional take to ensure proper administration?

• A. Flush the tube with 30 ml of water before and after medication administration.
• B. Administer the medication with food to prevent nausea.
• C. Verify tube placement by aspirating stomach contents.
• D. Dilute the medication with normal saline before administration.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flushing the NG tube with water before and after medication administration is essential to ensure the tube is patent and prevent clogging. This action helps in clearing the tube and ensures that the medication is delivered properly. Administering medication with food (Choice B) may not be appropriate for all medications and can interfere with their absorption. Verifying tube placement by aspirating stomach contents (Choice C) is important but does not directly relate to ensuring proper medication administration. Diluting the medication with normal saline (Choice D) is not a standard practice for administering medications through an NG tube.

5. The nurse is evaluating client learning about a low-sodium diet. Selection of which meal would indicate to the LPN that this client understands the dietary restrictions?

• A. Tossed salad with low-sodium dressing, bacon, and tomato sandwich.
• B. New England clam chowder, unsalted crackers, fresh fruit salad.
• C. Skim milk, turkey salad, roll, and vanilla ice cream.
• D. Macaroni and cheese, diet Coke, and a slice of cherry pie.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Skim milk, turkey salad, roll, and vanilla ice cream. These items are low in sodium, making it a suitable meal for someone on a low-sodium diet. Skim milk, turkey salad, and vanilla ice cream are naturally low in sodium, while the roll can be selected as a low-sodium option. Choices A, B, and D contain items that are typically high in sodium, such as bacon, clam chowder, crackers, and cheese, making them unsuitable for a low-sodium diet.

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