HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test for Fundamentals
1. The healthcare professional caring for a patient who is immobile frequently checks for impaired skin integrity. What is the rationale for this action?
- A. Inadequate blood flow leads to decreased tissue ischemia.
- B. Patients with limited caloric intake develop thicker skin.
- C. Pressure reduces circulation to affected tissue.
- D. Verbalization of skin care needs is decreased.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The rationale behind checking for impaired skin integrity in an immobile patient is that pressure reduces circulation to the affected tissue. Prolonged pressure on specific body parts can lead to reduced blood flow to those areas, causing tissue damage and potentially leading to pressure ulcers. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because inadequate blood flow causing decreased tissue ischemia, limited caloric intake leading to thicker skin, and decreased verbalization of skin care needs are not directly related to the rationale for checking for impaired skin integrity in immobile patients.
2. A client with a history of heart failure presents with increased shortness of breath and swelling in the legs. What is the most important assessment for the LPN/LVN to perform?
- A. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation level.
- B. Assess the client's apical pulse.
- C. Check for jugular vein distention.
- D. Measure the client's urine output.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Checking for jugular vein distention is crucial in assessing fluid overload in clients with heart failure. Jugular vein distention indicates increased central venous pressure, which can be a sign of worsening heart failure. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice A) is important but may not provide immediate information on fluid status. Assessing the apical pulse (Choice B) is relevant for monitoring heart rate but may not directly indicate fluid overload. Measuring urine output (Choice D) is essential for assessing renal function and fluid balance but does not provide immediate information on fluid overload in this scenario.
3. An older adult male client is admitted to the medical unit following a fall at home. When undressing him, the nurse notes that he is wearing an adult diaper and skin breakdown is obvious over his sacral area. What action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Establish a toileting schedule to decrease episodes of incontinence
- B. Complete a functional assessment of the client's self-care abilities
- C. Apply a barrier ointment to intact areas that may be exposed to moisture
- D. Determine the size and depth of skin breakdown over the sacral area
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The first action the nurse should implement is to determine the size and depth of the skin breakdown over the sacral area. This initial assessment will provide crucial information on the extent of the damage and guide appropriate care interventions. Option A is not the priority in this scenario as the immediate concern is addressing the existing skin breakdown. Option B, completing a functional assessment, is important but should come after addressing the acute issue of skin breakdown. Option C, applying a barrier ointment, may be beneficial later but does not address the primary need of assessing the extent of the current skin damage.
4. A parent asks a nurse about his infant's expected physical development during the first year of life. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
- A. A 10-month-old infant can pull up to a standing position.
- B. A 6-month-old infant can walk with assistance.
- C. A 12-month-old infant can jump with both feet.
- D. An 8-month-old infant can crawl on hands and knees.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. By 10 months, infants can typically pull up to a standing position as part of their physical development. Walking with assistance usually begins around 9-12 months, not at 6 months (choice B). Jumping with both feet is a skill that usually develops around 24 months, not at 12 months (choice C). Crawling on hands and knees typically starts around 6-9 months, not at 8 months (choice D). Therefore, the most accurate information to include for an infant's expected physical development at 10 months is the ability to pull up to a standing position.
5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client's ability to balance. Which of the following actions is appropriate when the healthcare provider conducts a Romberg test?
- A. Ask the client to extend their arms in front of their body.
- B. Ask the client to walk in a straight line heel to toe.
- C. Have the client stand with their feet together.
- D. Have the client place their hands on their hips.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The Romberg test is a neurological test that assesses proprioception and balance. To perform this test, the client is asked to stand with their feet together and arms at their sides while closing their eyes. By removing visual input, the test challenges the vestibular and proprioceptive systems. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the proper procedure for conducting the Romberg test. Extending arms in front, walking heel to toe, or placing hands on hips are not part of the Romberg test protocol and may introduce variables that could affect the assessment of balance.
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