Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare professional caring for a patient who is immobile frequently checks for impaired skin integrity. What is the rationale for this action?

• A. Inadequate blood flow leads to decreased tissue ischemia.
• B. Patients with limited caloric intake develop thicker skin.
• C. Pressure reduces circulation to affected tissue.
• D. Verbalization of skin care needs is decreased.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The rationale behind checking for impaired skin integrity in an immobile patient is that pressure reduces circulation to the affected tissue. Prolonged pressure on specific body parts can lead to reduced blood flow to those areas, causing tissue damage and potentially leading to pressure ulcers. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because inadequate blood flow causing decreased tissue ischemia, limited caloric intake leading to thicker skin, and decreased verbalization of skin care needs are not directly related to the rationale for checking for impaired skin integrity in immobile patients.

2. When providing postmortem care to a client diagnosed with Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) who has passed away, what type of precautions is appropriate to use?

• A. Airborne precautions
• B. Droplet precautions
• C. Contact precautions
• D. Compromised host precautions

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Contact precautions are the appropriate type to use when performing postmortem care for a client with MRSA. MRSA is primarily spread through direct contact, so using contact precautions helps prevent the transmission of the infection. Airborne precautions are not necessary for MRSA, as it is not transmitted through the air like tuberculosis or measles. Droplet precautions are used for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets like influenza. Compromised host precautions are not a standard precaution type and are not specific to managing MRSA infection.

3. A client has right-sided paralysis following a cerebrovascular accident. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse anticipate to prevent a plantar flexion contracture of the affected extremity?

• A. Ankle-foot orthotic
• B. Continuous passive motion machine
• C. Abduction splint
• D. Sequential compression device

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An ankle-foot orthotic is the correct choice to prevent a plantar flexion contracture in a paralyzed limb. An ankle-foot orthotic helps maintain proper alignment of the foot and ankle, preventing the foot from being permanently fixed in a pointed-down position. Continuous passive motion machines are typically used to promote joint movement after surgery and would not address the prevention of contractures in this case. Abduction splints are used to keep the legs apart and would not address the specific issue described. Sequential compression devices are used to prevent deep vein thrombosis by promoting circulation in the lower extremities and are not indicated for preventing plantar flexion contractures.

4. The client is advised to take dexamethasone (Decadron) with food or milk. What is the physiological basis for this advice?

• A. Inhibits pepsin production
• B. Stimulates hydrochloric acid production
• C. Delays stomach emptying time
• D. Reduces hydrochloric acid production

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Stimulates hydrochloric acid production. Dexamethasone can stimulate the production of hydrochloric acid in the stomach, which may lead to irritation of the stomach lining. Taking dexamethasone with food or milk helps to neutralize or buffer the acid, reducing the risk of stomach irritation. Choice A is incorrect because dexamethasone does not inhibit pepsin production. Choice C is incorrect as dexamethasone does not slow stomach emptying time. Choice D is incorrect as dexamethasone does not reduce hydrochloric acid production.

5. When caring for a client receiving warfarin sodium (Coumadin), which lab test would the nurse monitor to determine therapeutic response to the drug?

• A. Bleeding time
• B. Coagulation time
• C. Prothrombin time
• D. Partial thromboplastin time

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Prothrombin time (PT). Prothrombin time is monitored to assess the therapeutic response to warfarin therapy. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, which prolongs the PT. Monitoring PT helps determine if the client's blood is clotting within the desired therapeutic range. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because bleeding time, coagulation time, and partial thromboplastin time are not specifically used to monitor the therapeutic response to warfarin. Bleeding time assesses platelet function, coagulation time is a general term and not a specific test, and partial thromboplastin time is more relevant in monitoring heparin therapy, not warfarin.

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