Nursing Elites

1. A client who is nonambulatory notifies the nurse that his trash can is on fire. After the nurse confirms the fire, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?

• A. Activate the emergency fire alarm
• B. Extinguish the fire
• C. Evacuate the client
• D. Confine the fire

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next, after confirming the fire, is to evacuate the client. In a fire situation, following the RACE mnemonic, the priority is to rescue or evacuate clients to ensure their safety. Activating the emergency fire alarm (Choice A) is important to alert others and the fire department, but evacuating the client takes precedence. Extinguishing the fire (Choice B) may put the nurse and client at risk and is best left to trained personnel. Confining the fire (Choice D) is not the nurse's responsibility; the focus should be on ensuring the client's safety by evacuating them.

2. After inserting an NG tube for a client, which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect to confirm correct tube placement?

• A. An x-ray shows the end of the tube above the pylorus.
• B. The tube is aspirated and contains clear gastric fluid.
• C. The tube is flushed with sterile water without resistance.
• D. The client does not cough or choke during tube insertion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct placement of an NG tube is confirmed by aspirating gastric fluid, which indicates that the tube is in the stomach. An x-ray can help visualize tube placement, but it alone does not confirm correct placement. Flushing the tube with sterile water without resistance indicates patency but not necessarily correct placement. The absence of coughing or choking does not confirm tube placement and is more related to the client's comfort during the procedure.

3. When documenting client care, which of the following abbreviations should be used?

• A. SS for sliding scale
• B. BRP for bathroom privileges
• C. OJ for orange juice
• D. SQ for subcutaneous

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When documenting client care, it is crucial to use standardized abbreviations to ensure clear communication and prevent misunderstandings. BRP for bathroom privileges is a recognized and commonly used abbreviation in healthcare settings. Choice A, SS for sliding scale, is not a standard abbreviation and can lead to confusion as it could be mistaken for other meanings. Choice C, OJ for orange juice, is informal and may not be universally understood in a healthcare context. Choice D, SQ for subcutaneous, is a valid abbreviation but may not be as relevant in the context of documenting client care compared to BRP, which is more specific and widely accepted.

4. A nurse on a med-surg unit is teaching a newly licensed nurse about tasks to delegate to APs. Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. An AP may take orthostatic blood pressure measurements from a client who reports dizziness.
• B. An AP may monitor the peripheral IV insertion site of a client who is receiving replacement fluids.
• C. An AP may perform a central line dressing change for a client who is ready for discharge.
• D. An AP may ambulate a client who had a stroke 2 days ago.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Delegating the task of ambulating a client who had a stroke 2 days ago to an AP is appropriate. This task falls within the scope of practice for an AP and can help promote mobility and prevent complications. Choices A, B, and C involve more complex nursing assessments or procedures that require a higher level of training and expertise. Taking orthostatic blood pressure measurements, monitoring a peripheral IV insertion site, and performing a central line dressing change should be tasks performed by licensed nurses to ensure proper assessment and management of the client's condition.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is being assessed. Which laboratory value would be most concerning?

• A. Serum creatinine of 3.0 mg/dL
• B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 45 mg/dL
• C. Serum potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
• D. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease, an elevated serum potassium level (hyperkalemia) is the most concerning finding. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias due to its effect on the electrical conduction system of the heart. Monitoring and managing serum potassium levels are crucial in patients with chronic kidney disease to prevent serious complications. While elevated serum creatinine (Choice A) and Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) levels (Choice B) indicate impaired kidney function, hyperkalemia poses an immediate risk of cardiac complications. Hemoglobin levels (Choice D) are typically lower in chronic kidney disease due to decreased erythropoietin production, but they do not present an immediate life-threatening risk like hyperkalemia.

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