HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Study Guide
1. A client who is nonambulatory notifies the nurse that his trash can is on fire. After the nurse confirms the fire, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
- A. Activate the emergency fire alarm
- B. Extinguish the fire
- C. Evacuate the client
- D. Confine the fire
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next, after confirming the fire, is to evacuate the client. In a fire situation, following the RACE mnemonic, the priority is to rescue or evacuate clients to ensure their safety. Activating the emergency fire alarm (Choice A) is important to alert others and the fire department, but evacuating the client takes precedence. Extinguishing the fire (Choice B) may put the nurse and client at risk and is best left to trained personnel. Confining the fire (Choice D) is not the nurse's responsibility; the focus should be on ensuring the client's safety by evacuating them.
2. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is caring for a client who has a new prescription for wrist restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Pad the client’s wrists before applying the restraints
- B. Tie the restraints to the side rails of the bed
- C. Secure the restraints to the bed frame
- D. Use a quick-release knot to tie the restraints
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client has a new prescription for wrist restraints is to pad the client’s wrists before applying the restraints. This is important to prevent skin breakdown and injury. Tying the restraints to the side rails of the bed (Choice B) is unsafe and can lead to potential harm for the client. Similarly, securing the restraints to the bed frame (Choice C) is not appropriate as it can restrict the client's movement and cause discomfort. Using a quick-release knot to tie the restraints (Choice D) is also incorrect as it may compromise the effectiveness of the restraints in ensuring client safety.
3. The healthcare provider is caring for a 17-month-old with acetaminophen poisoning. Which lab reports should the healthcare provider review first?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- B. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts
- C. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
- D. Liver enzymes (AST and ALT)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the toxic effects of the drug on the liver. Liver enzymes such as AST (aspartate aminotransferase) and ALT (alanine aminotransferase) are essential markers to assess liver function and damage. Monitoring these enzymes early is crucial to detect hepatotoxicity and guide further management. Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red and white blood cell counts are not specific to assess liver damage in this context. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels are primarily used to evaluate kidney function, which is not the primary concern in acetaminophen poisoning.
4. The nurse is caring for a client with a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Cloudy urine
- B. Burning sensation during urination
- C. Foul-smelling urine
- D. Blood in the urine
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The presence of blood in the urine in a client with a urinary tract infection (UTI) may indicate a more severe infection, such as pyelonephritis, or complications like kidney stones or bladder cancer. Therefore, this finding should be reported immediately for further evaluation and management. Cloudy urine, burning sensation during urination, and foul-smelling urine are common symptoms of UTI and may not necessarily signify an urgent need for immediate reporting compared to the presence of blood in the urine.
5. A client with Guillain-Barre syndrome is in a non-responsive state, yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent. What should the nurse document to most accurately describe the client's condition?
- A. Comatose, breathing unlabored
- B. Glascow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular
- C. Appears to be sleeping, vital signs stable
- D. Glascow Coma Scale 13, no ventilator required
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. When documenting a client in a non-responsive state with stable vital signs and independent breathing, the nurse should document the Glasgow Coma Scale score to assess the level of consciousness and the regularity of respirations. Choice A is incorrect because 'comatose' implies a deeper level of unconsciousness than described in the scenario. Choice C is incorrect as it does not provide a specific assessment like the Glasgow Coma Scale score. Choice D is incorrect as a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13 indicates a more alert state than described in the scenario.
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