a nurse is caring for a client who has a sodium level of 125 meql which of the following findings should the nurse expect
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Practice Questions

1. A client has a sodium level of 125 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Abdominal cramping is a common manifestation of hyponatremia (low sodium levels). When sodium levels drop, it can lead to changes in the body's water balance, affecting cell function and causing symptoms like abdominal cramping. Increased thirst (choice B) is more commonly associated with hypernatremia (high sodium levels) due to the body's attempt to dilute the excess sodium. Elevated blood pressure (choice C) and elevated heart rate (choice D) are not typically direct manifestations of low sodium levels and are more commonly seen in conditions like dehydration or shock.

2. During an integumentary assessment for a group of clients, a healthcare professional notes various skin findings. Which of the following findings should the professional recognize as requiring immediate intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cyanosis, a bluish discoloration of the skin, indicates inadequate oxygenation and requires immediate intervention. It suggests a severe lack of oxygen in the blood, which can be life-threatening. Pallor and jaundice are concerning findings but may not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation. Pallor can be a sign of anemia or low blood pressure, while jaundice may indicate liver dysfunction. Erythema, which is redness of the skin, is typically not an emergency and can be caused by various factors such as inflammation or increased blood flow to the area.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing measures to prevent back injuries with assistive personnel (AP). Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction to prevent back injuries while lifting is to spread your feet apart to provide a wide base of support. This helps in maintaining stability and reduces the risk of back injury. Choice B is incorrect as lifting objects with your back straight and using your legs is the recommended technique. Choice C is incorrect because assistive devices can actually help prevent back injuries by providing support. Choice D is incorrect as bending at the waist to reach objects can strain the back muscles and increase the risk of injury.

4. The healthcare professional is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which observation requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Crepitus around the chest tube insertion site may indicate subcutaneous emphysema, which requires immediate attention. The presence of crepitus suggests air leaking into the tissues, which could lead to respiratory compromise. Constant bubbling in the suction control chamber is expected and indicates proper functioning of the chest tube system. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber is also normal, showing the system is intact. Drainage of 50 ml per hour is within the expected range for a chest tube.

5. An elderly male client who is unresponsive following a cerebral vascular accident (CVA) is receiving bolus enteral feedings through a gastrostomy tube. What is the best client position for the administration of bolus tube feedings?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Fowler's position. Placing the client in Fowler's position, with the head of the bed elevated to 45-60 degrees, reduces the risk of aspiration during bolus enteral feedings by facilitating the flow of the feeding into the stomach. Prone position (choice A) is lying face down, which is not suitable for feeding. Sims' position (choice C) is a side-lying position used for rectal examinations or enemas, not for feeding. Supine position (choice D) is lying flat on the back and is not optimal for reducing the risk of aspiration during bolus tube feedings.

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