a nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for a 24 hr urine collection which of the following actions should the nurse take
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HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals 2023 Quizlet

1. A client has a prescription for a 24-hour urine collection. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client has a prescription for a 24-hour urine collection is to discard the first voiding. This initial voiding is typically not collected to allow for the accurate start of the 24-hour collection period. All subsequent urine voided within the specified time frame is then collected. Including the last voiding in the collection is important to ensure that the full 24-hour period is covered. It is essential to keep the urine cool by storing it in a single container on ice to prevent degradation of components. Instructing the client to stop midstream and finish urinating into the specimen container is not required for a 24-hour urine collection and is an unnecessary step.

2. A client is admitted with infective endocarditis (IE). Which symptom would alert the nurse to a complication of this condition?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A new or changed heart murmur is a common sign of valve involvement in infective endocarditis, indicating a complication such as valve damage or regurgitation. Dyspnea is more commonly associated with respiratory or cardiac conditions not directly related to infective endocarditis. A macular rash is not a typical symptom of infective endocarditis, suggesting other conditions like infectious diseases. Hemorrhage is not a direct complication of infective endocarditis but may occur due to factors such as anticoagulant therapy or underlying bleeding disorders.

3. A nurse is caring for a client receiving fluid through a peripheral IV catheter. Which of the following findings at the IV site should the nurse identify as infiltration?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Infiltration occurs when the IV fluid leaks into the surrounding tissue instead of entering the bloodstream properly. Skin blanching, swelling, and coolness at the IV site are typical signs of infiltration. Purulent exudate (choice A) is associated with infection, warmth (choice B) can indicate phlebitis, and bleeding (choice D) may occur if the IV catheter punctures a blood vessel.

4. A nurse in a primary care clinic is assessing a client who has a history of herpes zoster. Which of the following findings suggests that the client has postherpetic neuralgia?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Report of continued pain following resolution of the rash. Postherpetic neuralgia is a complication of herpes zoster characterized by persistent pain that continues even after the rash has resolved. This pain can be severe and debilitating, affecting the quality of life of the individual. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because linear clusters of vesicles on the right shoulder would suggest an active herpes zoster outbreak, purulent drainage from both eyes would indicate an eye infection unrelated to postherpetic neuralgia, and a decreased white blood cell count is not typically associated with postherpetic neuralgia.

5. A client with a body mass index (BMI) of 30 is seeking advice on the initial approach to a weight loss plan. What action should the nurse recommend?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Keeping a food diary is an essential practice when starting a weight loss plan as it helps in tracking calorie intake, identifying eating patterns, and making informed decisions about dietary changes. Planning meals with low carbohydrates and high protein (Choice A) can be beneficial for some individuals, but keeping a food diary is more foundational. Engaging in strenuous daily activity (Choice B) may not be sustainable for everyone and could lead to burnout or injuries. Participating in a group exercise class (Choice D) is beneficial for fitness but may not address dietary habits, which are crucial for weight loss.

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