HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam
1. When interviewing the parents of a child with asthma, what information about the child's environment should be gathered most importantly?
- A. Household pets
- B. New furniture
- C. Lead-based paint
- D. Plants such as cactus
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When assessing a child with asthma, it is crucial to gather information about potential triggers in their environment. Household pets, such as cats or dogs, are common triggers for asthma attacks due to pet dander and saliva. This information is essential to identify if exposure to pets at home could be exacerbating the child's asthma symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are less relevant in the context of asthma triggers. New furniture, lead-based paint, and plants like cactus are not typically primary triggers for asthma attacks compared to common allergens like pet dander.
2. A nurse is caring for an older, immobile patient whose condition requires a supine position. Which metabolic alteration will the nurse monitor for in this patient?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Increased diarrhea
- C. Increased metabolic rate
- D. Increased pulse rate
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When an older, immobile patient is in a supine position, it increases cardiac workload, leading to an increased pulse rate. This is because the heart rate in older adults may not tolerate the additional workload. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because an increased appetite, increased diarrhea, and increased metabolic rate are not directly associated with being immobile in a supine position. Increased appetite is more related to nutritional needs or certain medical conditions, increased diarrhea could be due to various causes, and an increased metabolic rate is not typically a direct consequence of lying supine.
3. The LPN/LVN mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min to a client weighing 182 pounds. Using a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the client receive?
- A. 31 gtt/min.
- B. 62 gtt/min.
- C. 93 gtt/min.
- D. 124 gtt/min.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the client, first, convert the weight from pounds to kilograms by dividing 182 by 2.2, which equals 82.72 kg. Then, calculate the dose in mcg/min by multiplying the weight in kg by the rate (82.72 kg * 5 mcg/kg/min = 413.6 mcg/min). Next, convert 50 mg to mcg (50 mg * 1000 = 50,000 mcg). Divide the total mcg (50,000 mcg) by the dose per minute (413.6 mcg/min) to get approximately 121 gtt/min. However, since the drip factor is 60 gtt/ml, the correct answer is 124 gtt/min, ensuring the accurate administration rate of the medication. Therefore, choice 'D' is the correct answer. Choices 'A', 'B', and 'C' are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculated drops per minute based on the given information.
4. When assessing a male client, the nurse finds that he is fatigued and is experiencing muscle weakness, leg cramps, and cardiac dysrhythmias. Based on these findings, the nurse plans to check the client's laboratory values to validate the existence of which condition?
- A. Hyperphosphatemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Hypermagnesemia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The symptoms of muscle weakness, leg cramps, and cardiac dysrhythmias are indicative of hypokalemia, a condition characterized by low potassium levels. Checking the client's laboratory values for potassium will help confirm this diagnosis. Hyperphosphatemia (Choice A) is an elevated phosphate level in the blood, which is not consistent with the symptoms described. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) is a low calcium level and typically presents with different symptoms than those mentioned in the scenario. Hypermagnesemia (Choice C) is an excess of magnesium in the blood and does not align with the symptoms of muscle weakness, leg cramps, and cardiac dysrhythmias observed in the client.
5. When reviewing EBP about the administration of O2 therapy, what is the recommended maximum flow rate for regulating O2 via nasal cannula?
- A. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 6L
- B. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 2L
- C. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 4L
- D. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 8L
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 6L. This flow rate is generally recommended to ensure adequate oxygen delivery without causing discomfort or potential harm to the patient. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they suggest flow rates that are either too low (2L, 4L) or too high (8L). A flow rate of 2L might not provide sufficient oxygen, while 4L could be inadequate for some patients. On the other hand, a flow rate of 8L could be excessive and potentially harmful, leading to complications like oxygen toxicity. Therefore, the optimal recommendation is to regulate O2 via nasal cannula at a maximum of 6L to balance effectiveness and safety.
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