Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a diagnosis of asthma. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?

• A. Wheezing
• B. Shortness of breath
• C. Use of accessory muscles
• D. Cough with sputum production

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most concerning assessment finding in a client with asthma is the use of accessory muscles. This indicates that the client is working harder to breathe, which could signify respiratory distress. Wheezing, choice A, is a common finding in asthma and indicates narrowed airways but may not necessarily imply immediate distress. Shortness of breath, choice B, is also common in asthma but may not be as concerning as the use of accessory muscles. Cough with sputum production, choice D, can occur in asthma exacerbations but may not be as critical as signs of increased work of breathing like the use of accessory muscles.

2. A client in the emergency department is being cared for by a nurse and has abdominal trauma. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse identify as an indication of hypovolemic shock?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Elevated blood pressure
• C. Warm, dry skin
• D. Decreased respiratory rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tachycardia is a hallmark sign of hypovolemic shock. When a client experiences significant blood loss, the body compensates by increasing the heart rate to maintain adequate perfusion to vital organs. Elevated blood pressure is not typically seen in hypovolemic shock; instead, hypotension is a more common finding. Warm, dry skin is characteristic of neurogenic shock, not hypovolemic shock. Decreased respiratory rate is not a typical manifestation of hypovolemic shock, as the body usually tries to increase respiratory effort to improve oxygenation in response to hypovolemia.

3. A male client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline tells the nurse that he understands he is to take three doses of the medication each day. Since timed-release capsules are not available at the time of discharge, which dosing schedule should the LPN advise the client to follow?

• A. 9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.
• B. 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight.
• C. Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner.
• D. With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct dosing schedule for the client to follow is to take the medication at 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight. This timing spaces the doses evenly over the waking hours, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication. Choice A (9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.) does not evenly distribute the doses throughout the day. Choices C (Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner) and D (With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner) do not provide the required frequency of dosing needed for optimal therapeutic effect.

4. During the check-up of a 2-month-old infant at a well-baby clinic, the mother expresses concern to the nurse because a flat pink birthmark on the baby's forehead and eyelid has not gone away. What is an appropriate response by the nurse?

• A. Mongolian spots are a normal finding in dark-skinned infants.
• B. Port wine stains are typically associated with other malformations.
• C. Telangiectatic nevi are normal and will disappear as the baby grows.
• D. The child is too young for surgical removal of these at this time.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Telangiectatic nevi, often referred to as 'stork bites,' are common birthmarks in infants and are considered normal. These birthmarks usually fade and disappear as the child grows older. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Mongolian spots are bluish-gray birthmarks commonly found in darker-skinned infants, port wine stains are vascular birthmarks that typically do not disappear, and surgical removal is not recommended for telangiectatic nevi as they usually resolve on their own.

5. When orienting a newly licensed nurse on taking a telephone prescription, which statement indicates understanding of the process?

• A. A second nurse enters the prescription into the client’s medical record.
• B. Another nurse should listen to the phone call.
• C. The provider can clarify the prescription when they sign the health record.
• D. I should omit the 'read back' if this is a one-time prescription.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because a second nurse should verify and enter the prescription into the client’s medical record to ensure accuracy. This step is crucial to prevent errors in transcription and administration. Choice B is incorrect as having another nurse listen to the phone call does not ensure accurate transcription. Choice C is incorrect because the provider clarifying the prescription upon signing the health record does not replace the need for proper documentation. Choice D is incorrect because the 'read back' process is essential for all telephone prescriptions to confirm accuracy and prevent errors in transcription or administration.

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