Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of falls is under the care of a nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent falls?

• A. Keep the client's bed in the lowest position.
• B. Encourage the client to wear non-slip socks.
• C. Place a fall risk sign on the client's door.
• D. Use a gait belt when ambulating the client.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Keeping the client's bed in the lowest position is an essential measure to prevent falls. Lowering the bed reduces the risk of injury if the client falls out of bed by decreasing the distance of the fall. Encouraging the client to wear non-slip socks (Choice B) may help prevent slips on smooth surfaces but does not address the risk of falls in other scenarios. Placing a fall risk sign on the client's door (Choice C) alone does not actively prevent falls but serves as a warning. Using a gait belt when ambulating the client (Choice D) is important for assisting with mobility but does not directly address fall prevention in the client's environment.

2. A nurse is reviewing nutritional guidelines with the parents of a 2-year-old toddler. Which of the following parent statements should indicate to the nurse an understanding of the teaching?

• A. “I should keep feeding my son whole milk until he is 3 years old.”
• B. “It’s okay for me to give my son a cup of apple juice with each meal.”
• C. “I’ll give my son about 2 tablespoons of each food at mealtimes.”
• D. “My son loves popcorn, and I know it is better for him than sweets.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Offering a variety of foods in small portions is appropriate for a 2-year-old toddler as it helps provide balanced nutrition and allows the child to explore different tastes and textures. Choice A is incorrect because whole milk is recommended up to 2 years old, not until 3 years old. Choice B is incorrect as excessive juice intake can lead to excessive sugar consumption and is not recommended. Choice D is incorrect as popcorn may pose a choking hazard for toddlers and is not a suitable alternative to sweets.

3. What is the most suitable snack food for the LPN/LVN to offer a client with myasthenia gravis who is at risk for altered nutritional status?

• A. Chocolate pudding.
• B. Graham crackers.
• C. Sugar-free gelatin.
• D. Apple slices.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chocolate pudding is the best snack food choice for a client with myasthenia gravis at risk for altered nutritional status due to its nutrient density and soft texture, which can be easier for clients with swallowing difficulties to consume. Graham crackers, sugar-free gelatin, and apple slices may not provide the same level of nutrient density or ease of consumption for these clients. Graham crackers and apple slices may also pose challenges for clients with swallowing difficulties, while sugar-free gelatin, although a good option for some clients, may not offer the same level of nutrition as chocolate pudding.

4. The nurse is teaching an elderly client how to use MDIs (multi-dose inhalers). The nurse is concerned that the client is unable to coordinate the release of the medication with the inhalation phase. What is the nurse's best recommendation to improve the delivery of the medication?

• A. Nebulized treatments for home care
• B. Adding a spacer device to the MDI canister
• C. Asking a family member to assist the client with the MDI
• D. Requesting a visiting nurse to follow the client at home

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Adding a spacer device to the MDI canister is the best recommendation in this scenario. The spacer device helps to improve coordination and medication delivery by allowing the client more time to inhale the medication effectively. Nebulized treatments for home care (Choice A) involve a different delivery method and are not directly related to improving coordination with MDIs. Asking a family member to assist (Choice C) may not address the core issue of coordination between releasing the medication and inhalation. Requesting a visiting nurse (Choice D) may not be necessary if the client can improve coordination with the spacer device.

5. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is receiving a change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

• A. A client who has new onset of dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty
• B. A client who has acute abdominal pain rated 4 on a scale from 0 to 10
• C. A client who has a UTI and low-grade fever
• D. A client who has pneumonia and an oxygen saturation of 96%

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should see the client who has new onset of dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty first. New onset of dyspnea, especially after surgery, can indicate a serious complication such as a pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis. It is essential to assess this client promptly to rule out potentially life-threatening conditions. Acute abdominal pain, a UTI with low-grade fever, and pneumonia with an oxygen saturation of 96% are important issues but do not indicate the urgency and potential severity of a post-operative complication like pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis.

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