Nursing Elites

1. A mother of a child with a neural tube defect asks the nurse what she can do to decrease the chances of having another baby with a neural tube defect. What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. Folic acid should be taken before and after conception.
• B. Multivitamin supplements are recommended during pregnancy.
• C. A well-balanced diet promotes normal fetal development.
• D. Increased dietary iron improves the health of mother and fetus.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Folic acid should be taken before and after conception.' Folic acid supplementation before and during early pregnancy has been shown to significantly reduce the risk of neural tube defects. Choice B is incorrect because while multivitamin supplements are beneficial during pregnancy, the specific focus for preventing neural tube defects is on folic acid. Choice C is a general statement about a well-balanced diet and does not specifically address neural tube defects. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on dietary iron, which is important for overall health but not specifically proven to prevent neural tube defects.

2. A nurse in an outpatient clinic is caring for a client who has a new prescription for an antihypertensive medication. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give the client?

• A. “Get up and change positions slowly.”
• B. “Avoid eating aged cheese and smoked meat.”
• C. “Report any unusual bruising or bleeding to the doctor immediately.”
• D. “Eat the same amount of foods that contain vitamin K every day.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to give the client who is starting on antihypertensive medication is to 'Get up and change positions slowly.' Antihypertensive medications can cause orthostatic hypotension, a drop in blood pressure when changing positions, so changing positions slowly helps prevent this adverse effect. Choice B about avoiding aged cheese and smoked meat is more relevant for clients taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) due to potential interactions. Choice C regarding reporting unusual bruising or bleeding is more applicable for clients on anticoagulants. Choice D about consuming consistent amounts of vitamin K-containing foods daily is important for clients taking warfarin, not antihypertensive medications.

3. The nurse is assessing a 17-year-old female client with bulimia. Which of the following laboratory reports would the nurse anticipate?

• A. Increased serum glucose
• B. Decreased albumin
• C. Decreased potassium
• D. Increased sodium retention

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Decreased potassium.' Clients with bulimia often have decreased potassium levels due to frequent vomiting, which causes a loss of this essential electrolyte. This loss can lead to various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Option A, 'Increased serum glucose,' is not typically associated with bulimia. Option B, 'Decreased albumin,' is more related to malnutrition or liver disease rather than bulimia. Option D, 'Increased sodium retention,' is not a common finding in clients with bulimia; instead, they may experience electrolyte imbalances like hyponatremia due to purging behaviors.

4. A client is to receive 10 mEq of KCl diluted in 250 ml of normal saline over 4 hours. At what rate should the LPN/LVN set the client's intravenous infusion pump?

• A. 13 ml/hour
• B. 63 ml/hour
• C. 80 ml/hour
• D. 125 ml/hour

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the correct rate of infusion, divide the total volume by the total time: 250 ml / 4 hours = 62.5 ml/hour, which is rounded up to 63 ml/hour. This rate ensures the proper administration of the KCl over the 4-hour period. Choice A (13 ml/hour) is incorrect as it does not match the calculated rate. Choices C (80 ml/hour) and D (125 ml/hour) are also incorrect as they do not correspond to the calculated rate needed for the specified time frame.

5. A healthcare provider is providing teaching about health promotion guidelines to a group of young adult male clients. Which of the following guidelines should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Obtain a tetanus booster every 5 years.
• B. Obtain a herpes zoster immunization by age 50.
• C. Have a dental examination every 6 months.
• D. Have a testicular examination every 2 years.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Having a dental examination every 6 months is crucial for young adult males as it helps in maintaining good oral health and detecting any potential issues early on. Tetanus booster every 10 years is recommended for adults, not every 5 years (Choice A). Herpes zoster immunization is typically recommended for individuals aged 60 and older, not by age 50 (Choice B). While testicular self-examination is important for detecting testicular cancer, routine clinical testicular examinations are not generally needed every 2 years (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is to have a dental examination every 6 months.

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