HESI LPN
Fundamentals of Nursing HESI
1. During the check-up of a 2-month-old infant at a well-baby clinic, the mother expresses concern to the nurse because a flat pink birthmark on the baby's forehead and eyelid has not gone away. What is an appropriate response by the nurse?
- A. Mongolian spots are a normal finding in dark-skinned infants.
- B. Port wine stains are typically associated with other malformations.
- C. Telangiectatic nevi are normal and will disappear as the baby grows.
- D. The child is too young for surgical removal of these at this time.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Telangiectatic nevi, often referred to as 'stork bites,' are common birthmarks in infants and are considered normal. These birthmarks usually fade and disappear as the child grows older. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Mongolian spots are bluish-gray birthmarks commonly found in darker-skinned infants, port wine stains are vascular birthmarks that typically do not disappear, and surgical removal is not recommended for telangiectatic nevi as they usually resolve on their own.
2. A healthcare professional is reviewing the clinical records of infants and children with cardiac disorders who developed heart failure. What did the professional determine is the last sign of heart failure?
- A. Tachypnea
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Peripheral edema
- D. Periorbital edema
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Peripheral edema is often considered the last sign of heart failure in infants and children. It indicates significant fluid retention and circulatory compromise. Tachypnea (increased respiratory rate) and tachycardia (increased heart rate) are early signs of heart failure due to inadequate cardiac output. Periorbital edema, while a sign of excess fluid, typically occurs earlier in the progression of heart failure compared to peripheral edema.
3. After years of struggling with weight management, a middle-aged man is evaluated for gastroplasty. He has experienced difficulty managing his diabetes mellitus and hypertension, but he is approved for surgery. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client’s plan of care?
- A. Monitor for signs of depression
- B. Apply sequential compression stockings
- C. Provide a wide variety of meal choices
- D. Observe for signs of depression
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Observing for signs of depression is crucial in this patient's plan of care as depression can impact his overall recovery and management post-surgery. Depression is common in individuals struggling with weight management, diabetes mellitus, and hypertension. Monitoring for urinary incontinence (Choice A) is not the priority in this case as the patient is undergoing gastroplasty for weight management, not a urinary issue. Applying sequential compression stockings (Choice B) is important for preventing deep vein thrombosis in immobile patients but is not the priority in this scenario. Providing a wide variety of meal choices (Choice C) is not the most crucial intervention at this stage, as post-gastroplasty dietary restrictions are essential for successful weight management.
4. The doctor has ordered 1,000 cc of intravenous fluid every 8 hours. You will be using intravenous tubing that delivers 20 cc/drop. At what rate will you adjust the intravenous fluid flow? _____ gtts per minute.
- A. 38 gtts/min
- B. 42 gtts/min
- C. 50 gtts/min
- D. 40 gtts/min
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To calculate the rate: 1000 cc/8 hours = 125 cc/hour. 125 cc/hour * 1 drop/20 cc * 1 hour/60 minutes = 40 gtts/min. Therefore, the correct answer is 40 gtts/min. Choice A (38 gtts/min) is incorrect as it doesn't match the calculation result. Choice B (42 gtts/min) is incorrect as it is not the calculated rate. Choice C (50 gtts/min) is incorrect as it is not the calculated rate either.
5. When caring for a client receiving warfarin sodium (Coumadin), which lab test would the nurse monitor to determine therapeutic response to the drug?
- A. Bleeding time
- B. Coagulation time
- C. Prothrombin time
- D. Partial thromboplastin time
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Prothrombin time (PT). Prothrombin time is monitored to assess the therapeutic response to warfarin therapy. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, which prolongs the PT. Monitoring PT helps determine if the client's blood is clotting within the desired therapeutic range. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because bleeding time, coagulation time, and partial thromboplastin time are not specifically used to monitor the therapeutic response to warfarin. Bleeding time assesses platelet function, coagulation time is a general term and not a specific test, and partial thromboplastin time is more relevant in monitoring heparin therapy, not warfarin.