HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Quizlet
1. A client diagnosed with a terminal illness asks the nurse about the nurse’s religious beliefs related to death and dying. An appropriate nursing response is to:
- A. Share personal beliefs
- B. Encourage the client to express their thoughts about death and dying
- C. Redirect the conversation to medical treatment
- D. Inform the client that the nurse’s beliefs are not relevant
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging the client to express their own thoughts about death and dying is an appropriate nursing response in this situation. It allows the client to explore and express their feelings, fears, and beliefs, facilitating a therapeutic conversation. Sharing personal beliefs (choice A) may not be appropriate as it could impose the nurse's beliefs on the client and hinder open discussion. Redirecting the conversation to medical treatment (choice C) may avoid addressing the client's emotional and spiritual needs. Informing the client that the nurse’s beliefs are not relevant (choice D) dismisses the client's concerns and does not encourage open communication.
2. When reviewing a client’s fluid and electrolyte status, what should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Potassium 5.4
- B. Sodium 140
- C. Calcium 8.6
- D. Magnesium 2.0
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Potassium 5.4'. A potassium level of 5.4 is elevated (normal range is typically 3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and may indicate hyperkalemia, which can have serious cardiac implications. Elevated potassium levels can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, so immediate reporting and intervention are necessary. Choice B, 'Sodium 140', falls within the normal range (135-145 mEq/L) and does not require immediate reporting. Choice C, 'Calcium 8.6', falls within the normal range (8.5-10.5 mg/dL) and is not an immediate concern. Choice D, 'Magnesium 2.0', is within the normal range (1.5-2.5 mEq/L) and does not need urgent reporting. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting the elevated potassium level as it poses the most immediate risk.
3. During a family assessment, a nurse is interviewing a family composed of a husband, a wife, and three children. One child is biological from this marriage, and the other two are from the wife’s previous marriage. How should the nurse identify this family form?
- A. Extended
- B. Blended
- C. Nuclear
- D. Alternative
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Blended.' This family is considered a blended family because it consists of children from previous marriages, along with the biological child of the current marriage. Choice A ('Extended') refers to a family that includes relatives beyond the nuclear family, such as grandparents or aunts/uncles. Choice C ('Nuclear') typically consists of a husband, wife, and their biological children only. Choice D ('Alternative') does not accurately describe the family structure presented in the scenario.
4. A healthcare professional is admitting a client who has tuberculosis. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the healthcare professional plan to initiate?
- A. Contact
- B. Droplet
- C. Airborne
- D. Protective environment
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Tuberculosis is transmitted through airborne particles, so airborne precautions are necessary to prevent the spread of the disease. Airborne precautions (Choice C) involve measures such as negative pressure rooms and N95 respirators to prevent the transmission of infectious agents that remain infectious over long distances when suspended in the air. Contact precautions (Choice A) are used for diseases that spread through direct contact with the patient or their environment. Droplet precautions (Choice B) are for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets, typically over short distances. Protective environment (Choice D) is used for clients who are immunocompromised to protect them from environmental pathogens, not for diseases like tuberculosis that spread through the air.
5. A client with a prescription for a clear liquid diet is receiving teaching about food choices from a nurse. Which of the following selections by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. Gelatin
- B. Whole milk
- C. Cream soups
- D. Orange juice
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gelatin. Gelatin is suitable for a clear liquid diet because it is transparent and free of solid particles. Clear liquid diets are designed to be easily digested and leave minimal residue in the gastrointestinal tract. Choices B, C, and D are not appropriate for a clear liquid diet. Whole milk, cream soups, and orange juice contain solid particles or pulp, which are not allowed on a clear liquid diet. Whole milk and cream soups are not clear liquids as they contain milk solids and vegetable particles respectively. Orange juice contains pulp, which is not part of a clear liquid diet. It is important for clients to follow dietary restrictions to achieve the intended therapeutic outcomes.
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