Nursing Elites

1. A client diagnosed with a terminal illness asks the nurse about the nurse’s religious beliefs related to death and dying. An appropriate nursing response is to:

• A. Share personal beliefs
• B. Encourage the client to express their thoughts about death and dying
• C. Redirect the conversation to medical treatment
• D. Inform the client that the nurse’s beliefs are not relevant

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the client to express their own thoughts about death and dying is an appropriate nursing response in this situation. It allows the client to explore and express their feelings, fears, and beliefs, facilitating a therapeutic conversation. Sharing personal beliefs (choice A) may not be appropriate as it could impose the nurse's beliefs on the client and hinder open discussion. Redirecting the conversation to medical treatment (choice C) may avoid addressing the client's emotional and spiritual needs. Informing the client that the nurse’s beliefs are not relevant (choice D) dismisses the client's concerns and does not encourage open communication.

2. A nurse in a primary care clinic is assessing a client who has a history of herpes zoster. Which of the following findings suggests that the client has postherpetic neuralgia?

• A. Linear clusters of vesicles on the right shoulder.
• B. Purulent drainage from both eyes.
• C. Decreased white blood cell count.
• D. Report of continued pain following resolution of the rash.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Report of continued pain following resolution of the rash. Postherpetic neuralgia is a complication of herpes zoster characterized by persistent pain that continues even after the rash has resolved. This pain can be severe and debilitating, affecting the quality of life of the individual. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because linear clusters of vesicles on the right shoulder would suggest an active herpes zoster outbreak, purulent drainage from both eyes would indicate an eye infection unrelated to postherpetic neuralgia, and a decreased white blood cell count is not typically associated with postherpetic neuralgia.

3. The client is advised to take dexamethasone (Decadron) with food or milk. What is the physiological basis for this advice?

• A. Inhibits pepsin production
• B. Stimulates hydrochloric acid production
• C. Delays stomach emptying time
• D. Reduces hydrochloric acid production

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Stimulates hydrochloric acid production. Dexamethasone can stimulate the production of hydrochloric acid in the stomach, which may lead to irritation of the stomach lining. Taking dexamethasone with food or milk helps to neutralize or buffer the acid, reducing the risk of stomach irritation. Choice A is incorrect because dexamethasone does not inhibit pepsin production. Choice C is incorrect as dexamethasone does not slow stomach emptying time. Choice D is incorrect as dexamethasone does not reduce hydrochloric acid production.

4. The healthcare professional is caring for a client with a peripheral intravenous (IV) line that has infiltrated. What is the most appropriate initial action for the healthcare professional to take?

• A. Apply a warm compress to the affected area.
• B. Discontinue the IV and restart it in another site.
• C. Aspirate the IV line and flush it with normal saline.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct initial action when an IV line infiltrates is to discontinue the IV and restart it in another site. This is crucial to prevent complications such as tissue damage, phlebitis, and infection that can result from the infiltration. Applying a warm compress (Choice A) is not recommended as it can exacerbate the tissue damage caused by the infiltration. Aspirating the IV line and flushing it with normal saline (Choice C) is not appropriate for an infiltrated IV line as it does not address the main issue of infiltration. While notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is important, the immediate priority is to discontinue the infiltrated IV to prevent further harm and ensure proper delivery of fluids or medications.

5. An elderly client who requires frequent monitoring fell and fractured a hip. Which LPN/LVN is at greatest risk for a malpractice judgment?

• A. A nurse who worked the 7 to 3 shift at the hospital and wrote poor nursing notes.
• B. The nurse assigned to care for the client who was at lunch at the time of the fall.
• C. The nurse who transferred the client to the chair when the fall occurred.
• D. The charge nurse who completed rounds 30 minutes before the fall occurred.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse who transferred the client to the chair when the fall occurred is directly involved in the event that led to the injury. Improper transfer techniques or lack of appropriate precautions during the transfer could have contributed to the fall and subsequent fracture of the hip. This direct involvement makes this nurse the one at greatest risk for a malpractice judgment. Choices A, B, and D are not as directly linked to the event that caused the injury. While poor nursing notes could be a factor, it is the immediate action of transferring the client that has a more direct impact on the client's fall and subsequent injury.

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