HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test Pharmacology
1. A client with heart failure develops hyperaldosteronism. What dietary recommendation is essential for managing this condition?
- A. Limit intake of high potassium foods
- B. Replace salt with salt substitute
- C. Monitor skin for excessive bruising
- D. Cover your skin before going outside
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hyperaldosteronism can lead to increased potassium retention, which can be problematic for individuals with heart failure. Limiting intake of high potassium foods is crucial to prevent hyperkalemia, a condition that can worsen heart failure. Therefore, advising the client to limit high potassium foods is essential in managing hyperaldosteronism in the setting of heart failure.
2. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed canagliflozin. The nurse should include which instruction in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Report any signs of urinary tract infection.
- B. Take this medication with meals.
- C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
- D. Avoid taking this medication with grapefruit juice.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the client's teaching plan is to report any signs of urinary tract infection. Canagliflozin, a medication used in diabetes mellitus type 2, can increase the risk of urinary tract infections. Instructing the client to report any signs of infection is crucial for early intervention and management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because there is no specific requirement to take canagliflozin with meals, avoid alcohol, or restrict grapefruit juice consumption while on this medication.
3. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. The nurse should monitor for which common side effect of this medication?
- A. Liver toxicity
- B. Skin rash
- C. Hair loss
- D. Abdominal pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Liver toxicity. Methotrexate is known to cause liver toxicity, making regular monitoring of liver function essential. Monitoring liver function tests helps detect any signs of liver damage early, allowing for appropriate interventions to be implemented promptly.
4. A client with hypertension is prescribed valsartan. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Valsartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker that can cause hypotension as a side effect by dilating blood vessels. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial to prevent complications related to low blood pressure. Choice B, Tachycardia, is incorrect because valsartan typically does not cause an increase in heart rate. Choice C, Hyperglycemia, is not a common side effect of valsartan. Choice D, Hyponatremia, is also unlikely with valsartan use.
5. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed edoxaban. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Increased risk of bleeding
- B. Decreased risk of bleeding
- C. Increased risk of infection
- D. Decreased risk of infection
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of bleeding. Edoxaban is an anticoagulant that works by inhibiting clot formation, thereby increasing the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as bruising, petechiae, hematuria, or gastrointestinal bleeding, to prevent potential complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because edoxaban does not decrease the risk of bleeding or affect the risk of infection; its primary concern is the potential for bleeding due to its anticoagulant properties.
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