a client with heart failure develops hyperaldosteronism
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HESI Practice Test Pharmacology

1. A client with heart failure develops hyperaldosteronism. What dietary recommendation is essential for managing this condition?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hyperaldosteronism can lead to increased potassium retention, which can be problematic for individuals with heart failure. Limiting intake of high potassium foods is crucial to prevent hyperkalemia, a condition that can worsen heart failure. Therefore, advising the client to limit high potassium foods is essential in managing hyperaldosteronism in the setting of heart failure.

2. A client with chronic heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to an excess of potassium in the body, resulting in hyperkalemia. This side effect is important to monitor in clients taking spironolactone, especially those with chronic heart failure, as hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac complications.

3. What class of laxative would the nurse recommend to a patient asking about the best way to prevent constipation?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bulk-forming laxatives. These laxatives are recommended to prevent constipation because they work by absorbing liquid in the intestines, forming a bulky, soft stool that is easier to pass. They are safe and considered the most natural option. Stimulant laxatives (choice A) work by promoting bowel movements through intestinal contractions and are more suitable for treating occasional constipation rather than preventing it. Emollient laxatives (choice C) soften the stool by increasing the incorporation of water into the feces and are more suitable for patients who need to avoid straining during defecation. Hyperosmotic laxatives (choice D) work by drawing water into the intestine through osmosis and are typically used for more severe cases of constipation, not for prevention.

4. The healthcare provider is discharging a patient with a new prescription for ranitidine (Zantac). Which information would be important to include in the discharge teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. It is important to include information that ranitidine may cause restlessness as a side effect in some patients. Educating the patient about possible side effects helps in early recognition and management, improving medication adherence and patient safety. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not pertain to common side effects or specific considerations related to ranitidine use.

5. An adolescent client with a seizure disorder is prescribed the anticonvulsant medication carbamazepine. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider if the client develops which condition?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Develops a sore throat.' When a client on carbamazepine develops flu-like symptoms such as pallor, fatigue, sore throat, and fever, it could indicate blood dyscrasias (aplastic anemia, leukopenia, anemia, thrombocytopenia), which are potential adverse effects of the medication. These symptoms warrant immediate notification of the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because dry mouth, dizziness, and gingival hyperplasia are not commonly associated with carbamazepine use and do not indicate serious adverse effects that require immediate healthcare provider notification.

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