a client with heart failure develops hyperaldosteronism
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Practice Test Pharmacology

1. A client with heart failure develops hyperaldosteronism. What dietary recommendation is essential for managing this condition?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hyperaldosteronism can lead to increased potassium retention, which can be problematic for individuals with heart failure. Limiting intake of high potassium foods is crucial to prevent hyperkalemia, a condition that can worsen heart failure. Therefore, advising the client to limit high potassium foods is essential in managing hyperaldosteronism in the setting of heart failure.

2. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease is prescribed epoetin alfa. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Epoetin alfa can lead to hypertension as an adverse effect because it stimulates increased red blood cell production. This can result in elevated blood pressure levels, requiring careful monitoring by the nurse to prevent complications. Choice B, hypotension, is incorrect because epoetin alfa is more likely to cause hypertension rather than hypotension. Choice C, hyperglycemia, and Choice D, tachycardia, are also incorrect as they are not commonly associated with the use of epoetin alfa.

3. Escitalopram is prescribed for a 16-year-old adolescent client who is clinically depressed. Five days later, the parent tells the practical nurse (PN) that the drug is not working because their child is not feeling any better. Which explanation should the PN provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Antidepressant medications typically require 1 to 4 weeks to reach their full therapeutic effect. It is crucial to educate the family that during the initial week of treatment, the child may experience heightened anxiety. Therefore, it is important to wait for the medication to take its full course before assessing its effectiveness.

4. A client vomits 30 minutes after receiving a dose of hydromorphone on the first postoperative day. What initial intervention is best for the practical nurse (PN) to implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's vomiting is likely due to the hydromorphone administration, indicating a need for an antiemetic such as ondansetron to address the nausea. Nasogastric intubation (Choice A) is not necessary at this point as the client is vomiting, not experiencing an obstruction. While reducing the dose of hydromorphone (Choice C) may be considered later, the immediate focus should be managing the client's symptoms. Assessing the client's abdomen and bowel sounds (Choice D) can be important but is not the initial priority when addressing the vomiting post hydromorphone administration.

5. A client with an exacerbation of asthma is prescribed albuterol. The nurse should assess the client for which common side effect of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tremors. Albuterol, a beta-agonist medication commonly used to treat asthma exacerbations, can lead to tremors as a side effect. Tremors result from the stimulation of beta-2 receptors in muscles, particularly in the hands. Nausea and vomiting (Choice B) are generally not common side effects of albuterol. Insomnia (Choice C) is less likely to occur with albuterol, as it is a stimulant and can cause alertness rather than sleep disturbances. Dry mouth (Choice D) is not a typical side effect associated with albuterol use.

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