Nursing Elites

1. A client with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) reports having frequent nightmares. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. Nightmares are common with PTSD and should decrease over time.
• B. Try to avoid thinking about the trauma before going to bed.
• C. Let's discuss some relaxation techniques you can use before bedtime.
• D. I will ask the healthcare provider to prescribe a sleep aid.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to discuss relaxation techniques with the client that can help reduce anxiety and stress before bedtime. This approach may potentially decrease the frequency of nightmares by promoting a more calming and peaceful pre-sleep routine. Choice A is incorrect because while nightmares can be common with PTSD, it is not guaranteed that they will decrease over time. Choice B is incorrect as avoiding thinking about the trauma may not address the underlying issue causing the nightmares. Choice D is incorrect as prescribing a sleep aid should be considered as a last resort after trying non-pharmacological interventions.

2. The occupational health nurse is working with a female employee who was just notified that her child was involved in a MVA and taken to the hospital. The employee states, 'I can't believe this. What should I do?' Which response is best for the nurse to provide in this crisis?

• A. Tell me what you think should happen.
• B. How serious was the collision?
• C. What do you think you should do?
• D. Call for transportation to the hospital.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Providing immediate practical support, such as arranging transportation to the hospital, is the best response in this crisis situation. It helps the employee to take immediate action and supports her in a highly stressful moment. Choice A focuses on the employee's thoughts rather than providing immediate aid. Choice B is not a priority as the severity can be addressed later. Choice C puts the decision-making burden on the employee at a time of distress, which is not ideal. Therefore, choice D is the most appropriate response in this situation.

3. A male client with bipolar disorder has not slept or eaten in four days. He paces and becomes increasingly agitated and loud while the nurse talks to his spouse. What intervention is the best for the nurse to implement at this time?

• A. Move to a quiet area and provide peanut butter with crackers.
• B. Walk with the client to the cafeteria and star as he eats lunch.
• C. Request a full lunch tray from the dietary department.
• D. Encourage the spouse to eat lunch with the client.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this situation, the best intervention for the nurse to implement is to move the client to a quiet area and provide peanut butter with crackers. The client's behavior indicates increasing agitation and loudness, which could be exacerbated by a noisy environment. Providing a quiet space can help reduce stimuli and promote a sense of calm. Additionally, offering a small, manageable snack like peanut butter with crackers can address the client's immediate needs for sustenance without overwhelming him. Choices B, C, and D do not address the client's current agitation and lack of sleep or food effectively, making them less appropriate interventions in this scenario.

4. A client with schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine (Zyprexa). What is the most important side effect for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Weight gain
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Weight gain. Olanzapine (Zyprexa) is known to cause significant weight gain in patients. This side effect is crucial to monitor because it can lead to metabolic syndrome, diabetes, and cardiovascular issues. Monitoring the client's weight regularly and providing appropriate dietary guidance is essential. Hypotension (choice A), dry mouth (choice C), and tachycardia (choice D) are not commonly associated with olanzapine use and are not the primary side effects to monitor in this case.

5. An adolescent who attempted suicide with a drug overdose arrives in the emergency department with an empty 30-tablet bottle of acetaminophen (Tylenol). Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer acetylcysteine (Mucomyst).
• B. Monitor cardiac rhythm for flat T waves.
• C. Check both serum AST and ALT levels.
• D. Prepare to administer Syrup of Ipecac.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to administer acetylcysteine (Mucomyst). Acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose and should be administered promptly to prevent liver damage. Monitoring cardiac rhythm for flat T waves (Choice B) is not specific to acetaminophen overdose and is more related to cardiac conditions. Checking serum AST and ALT levels (Choice C) may be done later but is not the initial priority in this situation. Similarly, preparing to administer Syrup of Ipecac (Choice D) is not recommended anymore in cases of overdose as it can cause more harm.

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