Nursing Elites

1. A client with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) reports having frequent nightmares. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. Nightmares are common with PTSD and should decrease over time.
• B. Try to avoid thinking about the trauma before going to bed.
• C. Let's discuss some relaxation techniques you can use before bedtime.
• D. I will ask the healthcare provider to prescribe a sleep aid.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to discuss relaxation techniques with the client that can help reduce anxiety and stress before bedtime. This approach may potentially decrease the frequency of nightmares by promoting a more calming and peaceful pre-sleep routine. Choice A is incorrect because while nightmares can be common with PTSD, it is not guaranteed that they will decrease over time. Choice B is incorrect as avoiding thinking about the trauma may not address the underlying issue causing the nightmares. Choice D is incorrect as prescribing a sleep aid should be considered as a last resort after trying non-pharmacological interventions.

2. A LVN/LPN is caring for a client with anorexia nervosa. The nurse is monitoring the behavior of the client and understands that a client with anorexia nervosa manages anxiety by:

• A. Engaging in immoral acts
• B. Always reinforcing self-approval
• C. Observing rigid rules and regulations
• D. Having the need always to make the right decision

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients with anorexia nervosa often manage anxiety by adhering strictly to rules and regulations as a way to maintain control. Choice A is incorrect because engaging in immoral acts is not a common coping mechanism for clients with anorexia nervosa. Choice B is incorrect as self-approval is not typically the primary way clients with anorexia nervosa manage anxiety. Choice D is incorrect because while clients with anorexia nervosa may have a need to make the right decision, it is not the primary way they manage their anxiety.

3. A female client with severe depression who has been on antidepressants for two weeks suddenly becomes more energetic and talkative. What action should the RN take first?

• A. Encourage the client to participate in group activities.
• B. Monitor the client closely for signs of suicidal behavior.
• C. Praise the client for the apparent improvement.
• D. Discuss the client's progress with the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A sudden increase in energy and talkativeness in a client with severe depression who has been on antidepressants for a short period may indicate an increased risk of suicide due to the potential shift from profound sadness to motivation to act. The first action the RN should take is to monitor the client closely for signs of suicidal behavior. Encouraging participation in group activities or praising the client for the apparent improvement may overlook the potential risk of suicidal behavior. While discussing the client's progress with the healthcare provider is important, the immediate concern is to ensure the client's safety by closely monitoring for any signs of suicidal ideation or behavior.

4. A client with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder is prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). What is the most important side effect for the LPN/LVN to monitor?

• A. Weight gain.
• B. Sexual dysfunction.
• C. Nausea.
• D. Constipation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sexual dysfunction. When monitoring a client taking fluoxetine (Prozac), the LPN/LVN should prioritize observing for sexual dysfunction. This side effect is crucial to monitor as it can significantly impact the client's quality of life and may affect their adherence to the medication. Weight gain (choice A) is a possible side effect of fluoxetine but is not as critical as sexual dysfunction in terms of monitoring. Nausea (choice C) and constipation (choice D) are common side effects of fluoxetine, but they are generally less concerning compared to the impact of sexual dysfunction on the client's well-being and treatment compliance.

5. A female client with major depression is prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). She reports experiencing increased energy but still feels sad and hopeless. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. ''These feelings are normal and will pass with time.''
• B. ''Increased energy can sometimes lead to increased risk for self-harm.''
• C. ''The medication needs more time to be effective.''
• D. ''Let's talk about the things that make you feel this way.''

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Increased energy without improvement in mood can increase the risk of self-harm in clients with depression. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize this potential risk and closely monitor the client for any signs of self-harm. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the client's persistent feelings of sadness and hopelessness as normal may invalidate her experiences. Choice C is incorrect as fluoxetine (Prozac) typically starts showing effectiveness within a few weeks, so further delay is concerning. Choice D is incorrect because while discussing the client's feelings is important, the immediate focus should be on addressing the potential risk of self-harm associated with increased energy.

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