HESI LPN
Adult Health 1 Exam 1
1. The nurse is caring for a client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which position should the nurse avoid?
- A. Keeping the head of the bed elevated at 30 degrees
- B. Positioning the client in the prone position
- C. Placing the client in a lateral recumbent position
- D. Elevating the client's legs
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Positioning the client in the prone position. Placing the client in the prone position should be avoided in a client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) as it can further raise ICP. The prone position can hinder venous return and increase pressure within the cranial vault, potentially worsening the client's condition. Keeping the head of the bed elevated at 30 degrees helps promote venous drainage and reduce ICP. Placing the client in a lateral recumbent position can also assist in reducing ICP by optimizing cerebral perfusion. Elevating the client's legs can help improve venous return and maintain adequate cerebral blood flow, making it a suitable positioning intervention for managing increased ICP.
2. A parent tearfully tells a nurse, 'They think our child is developmentally delayed. We are thinking about investigating a preschool program for cognitively impaired children.' What is the nurse’s most appropriate response?
- A. Praise the parent for the decision and encourage the plan.
- B. Ask for more specific information related to the developmental delays.
- C. Advise the parent to have the healthcare provider help choose an appropriate program.
- D. Explain that this may be a premature action and the developmental delays could disappear.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate response in this situation is to ask for more specific information related to the developmental delays. By seeking additional details, the nurse can better understand the child's needs and provide tailored guidance and support to the parent. Praising the parent (Choice A) before fully grasping the situation may not be beneficial. Advising the parent to involve the healthcare provider in selecting a program (Choice C) is premature without a comprehensive understanding of the child's developmental delays. Explaining that the delays might resolve on their own (Choice D) is inappropriate as it dismisses the parent's concerns and the necessity for timely and appropriate interventions.
3. Following an open reduction and internal fixation of a compound fracture of the leg, a male client complains of “a tingly sensation” in his left foot. The nurse determines the client’s left pedal pulses are diminished. Based on these findings, what is the client’s greatest risk?
- A. Reduce pulmonary ventilation and oxygenation related to fat embolism.
- B. Neurovascular and circulation compromise related to compartment syndrome.
- C. Wound infection and delayed healing due to fractured bone protrusion.
- D. Venous stasis and thrombophlebitis related to postoperative immobility.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Compartment syndrome is a serious condition that can occur following trauma or surgery, leading to compromised neurovascular status in the affected limb. Symptoms include pain, paresthesia (tingling sensation), and diminished pulses. If left untreated, compartment syndrome can result in tissue damage and potential loss of limb function. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the neurovascular compromise associated with compartment syndrome.
4. What information should the nurse include when teaching a client at 41 weeks of gestation about a non-stress test?
- A. This test will confirm fetal lung maturity.
- B. This test will determine the adequacy of placental perfusion.
- C. This test will detect fetal infection.
- D. This test will predict maternal readiness for labor.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'This test will determine the adequacy of placental perfusion.' The non-stress test is used to assess fetal well-being by monitoring the fetal heart rate in response to its own movements. It helps determine if the fetus is receiving enough oxygen and nutrients through placental perfusion. Choice A is incorrect because confirming fetal lung maturity is typically determined through tests like amniocentesis, not the non-stress test. Choice C is incorrect because detecting fetal infection is not the primary purpose of a non-stress test. Choice D is incorrect because predicting maternal readiness for labor is not the purpose of the non-stress test; it focuses on fetal well-being.
5. A healthcare provider is assessing a 3-month-old infant with suspected pyloric stenosis. What clinical manifestation is the healthcare provider likely to observe?
- A. Projectile vomiting
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Constipation
- D. Abdominal distension
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Projectile vomiting is a classic clinical manifestation of pyloric stenosis in infants. This occurs due to the narrowing of the pyloric sphincter, leading to the forceful expulsion of gastric contents in a projectile manner. Diarrhea (choice B) is not typically associated with pyloric stenosis. Constipation (choice C) is also not a common symptom of this condition. Abdominal distension (choice D) may occur in pyloric stenosis but is not as specific or characteristic as projectile vomiting in diagnosing this condition.