HESI LPN
Adult Health 1 Exam 1
1. The nurse is caring for a client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which position should the nurse avoid?
- A. Keeping the head of the bed elevated at 30 degrees
- B. Positioning the client in the prone position
- C. Placing the client in a lateral recumbent position
- D. Elevating the client's legs
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Positioning the client in the prone position. Placing the client in the prone position should be avoided in a client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) as it can further raise ICP. The prone position can hinder venous return and increase pressure within the cranial vault, potentially worsening the client's condition. Keeping the head of the bed elevated at 30 degrees helps promote venous drainage and reduce ICP. Placing the client in a lateral recumbent position can also assist in reducing ICP by optimizing cerebral perfusion. Elevating the client's legs can help improve venous return and maintain adequate cerebral blood flow, making it a suitable positioning intervention for managing increased ICP.
2. The nurse is preparing a client for discharge following a myocardial infarction. What should the nurse prioritize in the discharge instructions?
- A. Warning signs of a potential heart attack
- B. Importance of medication adherence
- C. Follow-up appointment details
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When preparing a client for discharge after a myocardial infarction, the nurse should prioritize providing comprehensive instructions. This includes educating the client about warning signs of a potential heart attack to recognize symptoms early, stressing the importance of medication adherence for optimal recovery and prevention of further cardiac events, and ensuring understanding of follow-up appointment details for ongoing monitoring and care. All these aspects are crucial in preventing complications and promoting the client's well-being. Therefore, selecting 'All of the above' as the correct answer is the most appropriate choice. Choices A, B, and C are all essential components of a holistic discharge plan for a client post-myocardial infarction.
3. What is the homeostatic cellular transport mechanism that moves water from a hypotonic to a hypertonic fluid space?
- A. Filtration
- B. Diffusion
- C. Osmosis
- D. Active transport
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Osmosis. Osmosis is the homeostatic cellular transport mechanism that moves water from a hypotonic to a hypertonic fluid space to maintain cellular balance. In osmosis, water moves across a semi-permeable membrane from an area of low solute concentration (hypotonic) to an area of high solute concentration (hypertonic). This process helps regulate the water content inside cells. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Filtration involves the movement of solutes and solvents through a membrane due to a pressure difference, diffusion is the movement of solutes from an area of high concentration to low concentration, and active transport requires energy to move substances against their concentration gradient.
4. A client with a history of seizure disorder who is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin) is being discharged. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Take the medication at bedtime.
- B. Monitor drug levels regularly.
- C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
- D. Take the medication at the same time every day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor drug levels regularly. This is crucial for phenytoin (Dilantin) to ensure that the medication levels are within the therapeutic range and to prevent toxicity. Choice A, taking the medication at bedtime, is not specifically required for phenytoin administration. Choice C, avoiding alcohol, is generally a good practice with medications but is not as critical as monitoring drug levels for phenytoin. Choice D, taking the medication at the same time every day, is important for consistency but does not address the specific monitoring needs of phenytoin.
5. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic liver disease. Which lab value is most concerning?
- A. Elevated AST and ALT levels
- B. Decreased albumin level
- C. Elevated bilirubin level
- D. Prolonged PT/INR
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client with chronic liver disease, a prolonged PT/INR is the most concerning lab value. This finding indicates impaired liver function affecting the synthesis of clotting factors, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Elevated AST and ALT levels (Choice A) indicate liver cell damage but do not directly correlate with the risk of bleeding. A decreased albumin level (Choice B) is common in liver disease but is not the most concerning in terms of bleeding risk. Elevated bilirubin levels (Choice C) are seen in liver disease but do not directly reflect the risk of bleeding as PT/INR values do.
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