the nurse observes that a post operative clients surgical wound has reddened edges and is oozing what is the appropriate nursing action
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health 1 Final Exam

1. The nurse observes that a post-operative client's surgical wound has reddened edges and is oozing. What is the appropriate nursing action?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action when a post-operative client's surgical wound has reddened edges and is oozing is to notify the surgeon immediately. Reddened, oozing wound edges can indicate an infection that requires prompt evaluation and intervention by the surgical team. Applying an antibiotic ointment (Choice A) without proper assessment and guidance can be inappropriate. Cleaning the wound with sterile saline (Choice B) and covering it with a sterile dressing (Choice C) may not address the potential infection adequately, and the client may require more specialized care that the surgeon can provide.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving erythropoietin therapy. What is the primary purpose of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'To increase red blood cell production.' Erythropoietin stimulates the production of red blood cells to treat anemia associated with CKD. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because erythropoietin therapy is primarily used to address anemia by increasing the production of red blood cells rather than lowering blood pressure, improving appetite, or reducing fluid retention.

3. An elderly client is concerned about constipation during a flight. What should the nurse recommend?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to recommend increasing fluid intake in the diet. Adequate hydration is essential for preventing constipation, especially during travel when mobility may be reduced. Stool softeners are not the first-line recommendation and should only be used when necessary. Eating a high protein diet or decreasing fat content in the diet may not directly address the issue of constipation related to dehydration during a flight.

4. After receiving a report, the nurse receives the laboratory values for four clients. Which client requires the nurse’s immediate intervention? The client who is...

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A glucose level of 50 mg/dL is indicative of hypoglycemia, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications. Hypoglycemia can lead to serious consequences such as altered mental status, seizures, and even coma if not promptly addressed. The other options do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent intervention. Shortness of breath with a hemoglobin of 8 grams may indicate anemia but does not require immediate intervention. Bleeding from a finger stick with a prothrombin time of 30 seconds may suggest clotting issues, which are important but not as immediately critical as hypoglycemia. Being febrile with an elevated WBC count could indicate infection, which is concerning but not as urgently critical as hypoglycemia.

5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). What technique should the nurse emphasize?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In managing COPD with a metered-dose inhaler (MDI), the nurse should emphasize all of the techniques mentioned. Using a spacer can help improve drug delivery and reduce the risk of oral thrush. Synchronizing breaths with inhaler activation ensures proper medication delivery to the lungs. Regular cleaning of the inhaler prevents blockages and ensures optimal functioning. Therefore, all these techniques are important for effective COPD management, making 'All of the above' the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are all crucial components of proper MDI technique in COPD, so they are not individually sufficient without the others.

Similar Questions

A client is admitted to the hospital with second and third degree burns to the face and neck. How should the nurse best position the client to maximize function of the neck and face and prevent contracture?
In a community health setting, which individual is at highest risk for contracting an HIV infection?
The nurse is assessing a client with an IV infusion of normal saline. The client reports pain and swelling at the IV site. What should the nurse do first?
The nurse is with a client when the healthcare provider explains that the biopsy classifies the results as a T1N0M0 tumor. What response should the nurse provide first?
A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec). What is the primary action of this medication?

Access More Features

HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses