Nursing Elites

1. The nurse observes a client with new-onset tachycardia. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Check for the client's temperature
• B. Administer prescribed beta-blockers
• C. Assess for any chest pain or discomfort
• D. Monitor the client's blood pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client presents with new-onset tachycardia, the first action the nurse should take is to assess for any associated symptoms like chest pain or discomfort. This is important to differentiate the potential causes of tachycardia and guide appropriate interventions. Checking the client's temperature (Choice A) may be relevant in certain situations but is not the priority when tachycardia is observed. Administering prescribed beta-blockers (Choice B) should only be done after a comprehensive assessment and healthcare provider's orders. Monitoring the client's blood pressure (Choice D) is important, but assessing for chest pain or discomfort takes precedence in this scenario to rule out cardiac causes of tachycardia.

2. The client is diagnosed with pneumonia. Which intervention is most effective in promoting airway clearance?

• A. Administer bronchodilators as prescribed
• B. Encourage increased fluid intake
• C. Perform chest physiotherapy
• D. Provide humidified oxygen

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging increased fluid intake is the most effective intervention in promoting airway clearance for a client with pneumonia. Increasing fluid intake helps to thin respiratory secretions, making it easier for the client to clear the airways. Administering bronchodilators may help with bronchospasm but does not directly promote airway clearance. Chest physiotherapy may be beneficial but is not the first-line intervention for promoting airway clearance in pneumonia. Providing humidified oxygen can improve oxygenation but does not directly address airway clearance.

3. A client is receiving a blood transfusion and reports chills and back pain. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Continue the transfusion at a slower rate
• B. Administer an antipyretic
• C. Stop the transfusion immediately
• D. Notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client receiving a blood transfusion reports chills and back pain, it indicates a possible transfusion reaction. The nurse's priority action is to stop the transfusion immediately. Continuing the transfusion at a slower rate (Choice A) can exacerbate the reaction. Administering an antipyretic (Choice B) may help with fever but does not address the underlying issue of a transfusion reaction. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is important but should not delay the immediate action of stopping the transfusion to ensure the client's safety.

4. When assisting a client to obtain a sputum specimen, the nurse observes the client cough and spit a large amount of frothy saliva in the specimen collection cup. What action should the nurse implement next?

• A. Advise the client that suctioning will be used to obtain another specimen
• B. Re-instruct the client in coughing techniques to obtain another specimen
• C. Provide the client a glass of water and mouthwash to rinse the mouth
• D. Label the container and place the container in a biohazard transport bag

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After observing the client cough and produce frothy saliva in the collection cup, the nurse should provide the client with a glass of water and mouthwash to rinse the mouth. This action helps clear the mouth of contaminants, ensuring a more accurate sputum specimen for diagnostic testing. Option A is incorrect because suctioning is not the appropriate next step in this situation. Option B is unnecessary as re-instructing the client in coughing techniques may not address the immediate issue of contaminated saliva in the specimen. Option D is premature since labeling and transporting the container should only be done after obtaining a valid specimen.

5. A client with a diagnosis of hypertension is prescribed a thiazide diuretic. Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Hypokalemia.' Thiazide diuretics commonly cause potassium loss, which can lead to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is essential when a client is taking thiazide diuretics to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is an elevated level of potassium, which is not typically associated with thiazide diuretics. Hypernatremia (choice B) is an elevated level of sodium, and hypoglycemia (choice D) is low blood sugar, neither of which are directly linked to thiazide diuretic use.

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