Nursing Elites

1. The nurse observes a client with new-onset tachycardia. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Check for the client's temperature
• B. Administer prescribed beta-blockers
• C. Assess for any chest pain or discomfort
• D. Monitor the client's blood pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client presents with new-onset tachycardia, the first action the nurse should take is to assess for any associated symptoms like chest pain or discomfort. This is important to differentiate the potential causes of tachycardia and guide appropriate interventions. Checking the client's temperature (Choice A) may be relevant in certain situations but is not the priority when tachycardia is observed. Administering prescribed beta-blockers (Choice B) should only be done after a comprehensive assessment and healthcare provider's orders. Monitoring the client's blood pressure (Choice D) is important, but assessing for chest pain or discomfort takes precedence in this scenario to rule out cardiac causes of tachycardia.

2. A client reports feeling isolated and lonely two weeks after the death of a spouse. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?

• A. Encourage talking about the spouse
• B. Provide information on grief counseling
• C. Suggest joining a support group
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the grieving process, individuals may benefit from various interventions to cope with their emotions and feelings of isolation. Encouraging the client to talk about the deceased spouse can provide an outlet for their emotions. Providing information on grief counseling can offer professional support tailored to their needs. Suggesting joining a support group can help the client connect with others who are going through a similar experience, fostering a sense of belonging and understanding. By selecting 'All of the above' as the correct answer, it acknowledges the importance of utilizing multiple strategies to support the client's emotional health and facilitate the grieving process effectively. The other options alone may not address all aspects of the client's needs during this difficult time.

3. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Persistent cough
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Persistent cough. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor commonly associated with a persistent dry cough as a side effect. This cough is thought to result from increased bradykinin levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypokalemia is not a common side effect of lisinopril; in fact, it may lead to hyperkalemia. Hyperglycemia is not a typical side effect of lisinopril use. Tachycardia is also not a common side effect associated with ACE inhibitors like lisinopril.

4. A client with a diagnosis of chronic heart failure is receiving digoxin. What is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?

• A. Take the medication with a high-fiber meal
• B. Monitor pulse rate daily before taking the medication
• C. Avoid dairy products while on this medication
• D. Discontinue the medication if blurred vision is experienced

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important instruction the nurse should provide is to monitor pulse rate daily before taking the medication. Digoxin can lead to bradycardia, so it is crucial to assess the pulse rate before administering the medication. This practice helps ensure that the heart rate is not too low for the safe use of digoxin. Choice A is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to take digoxin with a high-fiber meal. Choice C is also incorrect because there is no need to avoid dairy products while on digoxin. Choice D is incorrect since blurred vision is not a common side effect of digoxin; hence, it is not the most critical instruction to provide.

5. A client with a diagnosis of hypertension is prescribed a thiazide diuretic. Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Hypokalemia.' Thiazide diuretics commonly cause potassium loss, which can lead to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is essential when a client is taking thiazide diuretics to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is an elevated level of potassium, which is not typically associated with thiazide diuretics. Hypernatremia (choice B) is an elevated level of sodium, and hypoglycemia (choice D) is low blood sugar, neither of which are directly linked to thiazide diuretic use.

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