HESI LPN
Pediatric HESI 2023
1. A 5-year-old child with a diagnosis of asthma is being evaluated for medication management. What is an important assessment for the nurse to perform?
- A. Assess the child's sleep patterns
- B. Assess the child's dietary intake
- C. Assess the child's academic performance
- D. Assess the child's behavior at home
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Assessing the child's dietary intake is crucial in managing asthma as certain foods can trigger symptoms or exacerbate the condition. Monitoring the child's diet can help identify triggers, ensure proper nutrition, and support the child's overall health. Assessing sleep patterns (Choice A) may be relevant but is not as directly linked to asthma management as dietary intake. Academic performance (Choice C) and behavior at home (Choice D) are important aspects of a child's well-being but are not directly related to asthma management.
2. A school nurse is educating parents of school-age children on the significance of immunizations for childhood communicable diseases. What preventable disease may lead to the complication of encephalitis?
- A. Varicella (Chickenpox)
- B. Scarlet fever
- C. Poliomyelitis
- D. Whooping cough
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Varicella (Chickenpox). Varicella can lead to the complication of encephalitis, characterized by brain inflammation. Encephalitis is a known complication of chickenpox in rare cases. Scarlet fever (choice B) is caused by Streptococcus bacteria and does not typically result in encephalitis. Poliomyelitis (choice C) primarily affects the spinal cord and does not lead to encephalitis. Whooping cough (choice D) can cause severe coughing spells but does not directly result in encephalitis.
3. The nurse assesses a client one hour after starting a transfusion of packed red blood cells and determines that there are no indications of a transfusion reaction. What instructions should the nurse provide the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who is working with the nurse?
- A. Continue to measure the client’s vital signs every thirty minutes until the transfusion is complete
- B. Since a reaction did not occur, the priority is to maintain client comfort during the transfusion
- C. Monitor the client carefully for the next three hours and report the onset of a reaction immediately
- D. Notify the nurse when the transfusion has finished, so further client assessment can be done
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for the UAP is to continue measuring the client’s vital signs every thirty minutes until the transfusion is complete. This is important because continuous monitoring of vital signs during the transfusion helps detect any delayed reactions promptly. Choice B is incorrect because maintaining client comfort is important but not the priority over monitoring vital signs. Choice C is incorrect as monitoring should be ongoing and not limited to a specific time frame. Choice D is incorrect as the UAP should monitor vital signs throughout the transfusion, not just at the end.
4. Which statement made by a client indicates to the nurse that they may have a thought disorder?
- A. 'I'm so angry about this. Wait until my partner hears about this.'
- B. 'I'm a little confused. What time is it?'
- C. 'I can't find my missing shoes. Have you seen them?'
- D. 'I'm fine. It's my daughter who has the problem.'
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The statement 'I can't find my missing shoes. Have you seen them?' displays disorganized thinking or speech, which is characteristic of a thought disorder. The mention of 'missing shoes' in a context that does not make logical sense suggests a disturbance in thought processes. Choices A, B, and D do not demonstrate disorganized thinking typical of thought disorders. Option A reflects emotional expression, option B indicates mild confusion, and option D shows a redirection of focus to someone else's problem.
5. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following laboratory values?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. Serum potassium
- C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
- D. White blood cell count (WBC)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prothrombin time (PT). Prothrombin time is monitored to assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, including factors II, VII, IX, and X. Monitoring the PT helps ensure that the client's blood is clotting within the desired therapeutic range to prevent complications such as recurrent DVT or excessive bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because serum potassium, blood urea nitrogen, and white blood cell count are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with a history of DVT.