Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is admitting a client who has decreased circulation in his left leg. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take first?

• A. Evaluate pedal pulses
• B. Assess skin temperature
• C. Check for capillary refill
• D. Measure the leg circumference

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Evaluating pedal pulses should be the first action taken as it provides immediate information about circulation. This assessment helps in determining the adequacy of blood flow in the client's leg. Assessing skin temperature, checking for capillary refill, and measuring leg circumference are important assessments; however, evaluating pedal pulses is the most crucial initial step in this scenario. Skin temperature assessment and capillary refill check can provide additional valuable information about perfusion, while measuring leg circumference is useful in monitoring for edema. Therefore, for a client with decreased circulation in the left leg, evaluating pedal pulses takes precedence over the other assessments.

2. The healthcare professional prepares a 1,000 ml IV of 5% dextrose and water to be infused over 8 hours. The infusion set delivers 10 drops per milliliter. The healthcare professional should regulate the IV to administer approximately how many drops per minute?

• A. 80
• B. 8
• C. 21
• D. 25

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the IV infusion, first determine the total drops to be infused over 8 hours. 1,000 ml to be infused over 8 hours means 125 ml per hour (1000 ml / 8 hours = 125 ml/hr). Since the infusion set delivers 10 drops per ml, 125 ml/hr x 10 drops/ml = 1250 drops/hr. To find drops per minute, divide the drops per hour by 60 (minutes in an hour): 1250 drops/hr / 60 minutes = 20.83 drops/minute, which rounds up to 21 drops per minute (Option C). This rate ensures the correct infusion rate over 8 hours. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect calculations and do not provide the appropriate infusion rate needed to administer the IV over the specified time period.

3. When caring for a client with diarrhea due to shigellosis, what precautions should the nurse implement?

• A. Wear a gown when caring for the client.
• B. Wear gloves only.
• C. Use standard precautions only.
• D. Wear a mask and face shield.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to wear a gown when caring for the client. Shigellosis is highly contagious, and contact precautions are essential to prevent the spread of infection. Wearing gloves alone may not provide adequate protection as the client's diarrhea can contain infectious pathogens that can easily spread. Standard precautions include hand hygiene, but specific precautions for shigellosis require wearing a gown to protect against contact with infectious material. Wearing a mask and face shield are not necessary for shigellosis, as the primary mode of transmission is through the fecal-oral route, and these precautions are not indicated for this type of transmission.

4. A nurse is admitting a client who has an abdominal wound with a large amount of purulent drainage. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse initiate?

• A. Protective environment
• B. Airborne precautions
• C. Droplet precautions
• D. Contact precautions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Contact precautions. When a client has an abdominal wound with purulent drainage, contact precautions are necessary to prevent the spread of infection through direct contact. Protective environment precautions are used for immunocompromised clients, airborne precautions are for diseases transmitted by airborne particles, and droplet precautions are for diseases transmitted by respiratory droplets. In this case, the focus is on preventing direct contact transmission, making contact precautions the most appropriate choice. Protective environment, airborne, and droplet precautions are not indicated in this scenario because the primary concern is the direct contact transmission of pathogens through the wound drainage.

5. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the LPN/LVN monitor for in this client?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Insomnia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct side effect that the LPN/LVN should monitor for in a client prescribed a beta-blocker is bradycardia. Beta-blockers work by slowing down the heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia as a common side effect. Monitoring the client's heart rate is crucial, as bradycardia can be a serious condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, and insomnia are not typically associated with beta-blockers. Increased appetite is more commonly linked to certain medications like corticosteroids, dry mouth can be a side effect of anticholinergic medications, and insomnia may be a side effect of stimulant medications.

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