Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider has inserted an indwelling catheter for a male patient. Where should the healthcare provider tape the catheter to prevent pressure on the client's urethra at the penoscrotal junction?

• A. Lower abdomen
• B. Upper thigh
• C. Penoscrotal junction
• D. Mid-abdomen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Taping the catheter to the lower abdomen is the correct placement to prevent pressure on the urethra at the penoscrotal junction. Securing the catheter at the lower abdomen helps in reducing discomfort and minimizes the risk of trauma to the urethra. Placing the catheter on the upper thigh or penoscrotal junction can lead to tension on the catheter and potential discomfort for the patient. Taping the catheter to the mid-abdomen is not recommended as it does not provide the necessary support to prevent pressure on the urethra at the penoscrotal junction.

2. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the nurse monitor for in this client?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Nausea and vomiting
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bradycardia. Beta-blockers are known to decrease heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia. This is a common side effect that nurses should monitor for in clients taking beta-blockers. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, nausea, and vomiting are not typical side effects associated with beta-blockers. Therefore, the nurse should focus on monitoring for bradycardia in this client.

3. A healthcare professional is planning to obtain the vital signs of a 2-year-old child who is experiencing diarrhea and who might have a right ear infection. Which of the following routes should the healthcare professional use to obtain the temperature?

• A. Temporal
• B. Oral
• C. Rectal
• D. Axillary

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a 2-year-old child with diarrhea and a possible ear infection, rectal temperature measurement is the most accurate reflection of core body temperature. This method provides the most reliable reading, especially in young children, as it closely reflects the core body temperature. Oral temperature may not be accurate due to the child's recent diarrhea, which can affect oral readings. Axillary temperature may not be as accurate as rectal temperature in this case. Temporal temperature measurement, although non-invasive, may not provide the most accurate core body temperature reading, especially in a child with a potential ear infection.

4. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. What information should the LPN include when teaching the client about this medication?

• A. Avoid exposure to sunlight.
• B. Take the medication with food.
• C. Increase fluid intake while on this medication.
• D. Report any signs of infection to the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Report any signs of infection to the healthcare provider immediately.' Methotrexate is an immunosuppressant medication commonly used to treat rheumatoid arthritis. It can lower the immune system's ability to fight infections, making it crucial for clients to promptly report any signs of infection to prevent serious complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because avoiding sunlight, taking the medication with food, and increasing fluid intake are not specific to methotrexate therapy and are not primary concerns associated with this medication.

5. An older adult male client is admitted to the medical unit following a fall at home. When undressing him, the nurse notes that he is wearing an adult diaper and skin breakdown is obvious over his sacral area. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Establish a toileting schedule to decrease episodes of incontinence
• B. Complete a functional assessment of the client's self-care abilities
• C. Apply a barrier ointment to intact areas that may be exposed to moisture
• D. Determine the size and depth of skin breakdown over the sacral area

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The first action the nurse should implement is to determine the size and depth of the skin breakdown over the sacral area. This initial assessment will provide crucial information on the extent of the damage and guide appropriate care interventions. Option A is not the priority in this scenario as the immediate concern is addressing the existing skin breakdown. Option B, completing a functional assessment, is important but should come after addressing the acute issue of skin breakdown. Option C, applying a barrier ointment, may be beneficial later but does not address the primary need of assessing the extent of the current skin damage.

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