a nurse is caring for a client who requires a 24 hour urine collection which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of t
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HESI LPN

Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam

1. A client requires a 24-hour urine collection. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because for a 24-hour urine collection, the first void is discarded, and all subsequent urine should be saved. Choice A is incorrect because bowel movements do not contribute to a urine collection. Choice B indicates a single specimen rather than continuous collection over 24 hours. Choice D is incorrect as it incorrectly suggests rushing the test by drinking excessively.

2. The nurse receives a report that a client with an indwelling urinary catheter has an output of 150 mL for the previous 6-hour shift. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the drainage tubing for a kink. A kink in the tubing can obstruct urine flow, potentially causing the low output. By addressing this first, the nurse can ensure that there are no physical obstructions hindering urine drainage. Reviewing the intake and output record is important, but addressing a possible kink in the tubing takes precedence as it directly affects urine flow. Notifying the healthcare provider should be considered after assessing and resolving immediate issues. Giving the client water to drink may be appropriate, but addressing a kink in the tubing is the priority to ensure proper function of the urinary catheter.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to perform a sterile dressing change for a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional plan to take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Setting up the sterile field at waist level is crucial to maintaining its sterility during a dressing change. Choice A is incorrect because sterile gloves should be worn after opening sterile dressing supplies to prevent contamination. Choice C is incorrect as the entire border of the sterile field should be considered contaminated to maintain sterility. Choice D is incorrect because the cap of a sterile solution should never be placed inside the sterile field to prevent contamination.

4. When reviewing EBP about the administration of O2 therapy, what is the recommended maximum flow rate for regulating O2 via nasal cannula?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 6L. This flow rate is generally recommended to ensure adequate oxygen delivery without causing discomfort or potential harm to the patient. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they suggest flow rates that are either too low (2L, 4L) or too high (8L). A flow rate of 2L might not provide sufficient oxygen, while 4L could be inadequate for some patients. On the other hand, a flow rate of 8L could be excessive and potentially harmful, leading to complications like oxygen toxicity. Therefore, the optimal recommendation is to regulate O2 via nasal cannula at a maximum of 6L to balance effectiveness and safety.

5. A client with a fractured femur has a BP of 140/94 mmHg and denies any history of HTN. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action is to ask the client if they are having pain. Pain can lead to temporary increases in blood pressure. Addressing pain as a potential cause is the initial step before considering medication adjustments. Requesting an antihypertensive medication or an antianxiety medication without assessing pain first would not address the immediate concern. Returning to recheck the BP can be done after addressing the potential pain issue.

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