HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Test Bank
1. A visitor comes to the nursing station and tells the nurse that a client and his relative had a fight, and that the client is now lying unconscious on the floor. What is the most important action the LPN/LVN needs to take?
- A. Ask the client if he is okay.
- B. Call security from the room.
- C. Find out if there is anyone else in the room.
- D. Ask security to make sure the room is safe.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most critical action for the LPN/LVN to take in this situation is to ask security to ensure the room is safe. This step is crucial to prevent any further harm to the unconscious client or others. While it is important to assess the client's condition, ensuring safety takes precedence. Calling security from the room may expose the LPN/LVN to potential danger without confirming the safety of the environment first. Finding out if anyone else is in the room can wait until safety is established to avoid unnecessary risks.
2. A nurse is providing care to a client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs)?
- A. Irrigate the catheter with sterile water daily.
- B. Empty the catheter bag every 8 hours.
- C. Clean the perineal area with antiseptic solution daily.
- D. Secure the catheter to the client's thigh.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Securing the catheter to the client's thigh is the correct action to prevent CAUTIs. By securing the catheter, movement is minimized, reducing the risk of introducing bacteria into the urinary tract. Choice A is incorrect because routine irrigation of the catheter is not recommended as it can increase the risk of infection. Choice B is incorrect as emptying the catheter bag every 8 hours is important for proper drainage but does not directly prevent CAUTIs. Choice C is incorrect because cleaning the perineal area with antiseptic solution does not address the main source of CAUTIs related to catheter care.
3. A nurse in a health clinic is caring for a 20-year-old client who tells the nurse that their last physical exam was in high school. Which of the following health screenings should the nurse expect the provider to perform for this client?
- A. Testicular examination
- B. Blood glucose
- C. Fecal occult blood
- D. Prostate-specific antigen
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A testicular examination is appropriate for a 20-year-old male to screen for testicular cancer, which is more common in younger age groups. Testicular cancer is most frequently diagnosed in individuals between the ages of 15 and 40. Blood glucose screening is typically recommended for older individuals or those at risk for diabetes. Fecal occult blood testing is used for colorectal cancer screening, usually starting at age 50. Prostate-specific antigen testing is commonly considered for prostate cancer screening in older males, typically around age 50. Therefore, the most appropriate screening for the 20-year-old client is the testicular examination.
4. A client is evaluated by a nurse regarding the use of a sequential compression device. Which of the following client statements indicates understanding of the device's purpose?
- A. “This device will keep me from developing skin sores.”
- B. “This device will keep the blood circulating in my leg.”
- C. “This device will prevent my leg muscles from weakening.”
- D. “This device will maintain the health of my joints.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because sequential compression devices are utilized to enhance circulation and prevent clot formation in the legs. Option A is incorrect because these devices are not primarily meant to prevent skin sores. Option C is incorrect because the devices do not directly address muscle weakness. Option D is incorrect as the main purpose of sequential compression devices is not related to joint health.
5. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the LPN/LVN monitor for in this client?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Insomnia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct side effect that the LPN/LVN should monitor for in a client prescribed a beta-blocker is bradycardia. Beta-blockers work by slowing down the heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia as a common side effect. Monitoring the client's heart rate is crucial, as bradycardia can be a serious condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, and insomnia are not typically associated with beta-blockers. Increased appetite is more commonly linked to certain medications like corticosteroids, dry mouth can be a side effect of anticholinergic medications, and insomnia may be a side effect of stimulant medications.
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