HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank
1. A nurse on a med-surg unit is teaching a newly licensed nurse about tasks to delegate to APs. Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. An AP may take orthostatic blood pressure measurements from a client who reports dizziness.
- B. An AP may monitor the peripheral IV insertion site of a client who is receiving replacement fluids.
- C. An AP may perform a central line dressing change for a client who is ready for discharge.
- D. An AP may ambulate a client who had a stroke 2 days ago.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Delegating the task of ambulating a client who had a stroke 2 days ago to an AP is appropriate. This task falls within the scope of practice for an AP and can help promote mobility and prevent complications. Choices A, B, and C involve more complex nursing assessments or procedures that require a higher level of training and expertise. Taking orthostatic blood pressure measurements, monitoring a peripheral IV insertion site, and performing a central line dressing change should be tasks performed by licensed nurses to ensure proper assessment and management of the client's condition.
2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client’s oculomotor nerve functions. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Check the client’s pupillary reaction to light
- B. Ask the client to read print from the Snellen chart
- C. Ask the client to identify different scents
- D. Use cotton to lightly touch the client’s cornea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Checking the client’s pupillary reaction to light is a key assessment to evaluate the oculomotor nerve function. The oculomotor nerve controls the pupil's constriction response to light. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because testing vision with a Snellen chart, identifying scents, or touching the cornea are not specific assessments for oculomotor nerve function.
3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with acute pancreatitis. Which finding is most concerning?
- A. Pain radiating to the back
- B. Blood pressure of 95/60 mmHg
- C. Elevated serum amylase
- D. Absent bowel sounds
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In acute pancreatitis, a low blood pressure of 95/60 mmHg is the most concerning finding as it may indicate hypovolemia or shock, which are critical conditions requiring immediate intervention. Pain radiating to the back is a common symptom of pancreatitis but is not as immediately life-threatening as hypotension. Elevated serum amylase levels and absent bowel sounds are typical findings in acute pancreatitis and may indicate pancreatic inflammation and gastrointestinal motility issues, respectively, but they are not as acutely concerning as hypotension.
4. A client is incontinent of loose stool and is reporting a painful perineum. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?
- A. Assess the client's perineum
- B. Administer pain medication
- C. Clean the area with a mild cleanser
- D. Apply a barrier cream to the affected area
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Assessing the client's perineum is the priority nursing action in this situation. By checking the perineum, the nurse can evaluate for skin damage, irritation, infection, or other issues that may be causing the client's pain. This assessment is crucial to determine the appropriate interventions needed to address the client's discomfort and prevent complications. Administering pain medication, cleaning the area with a mild cleanser, or applying a barrier cream are important interventions but should follow the initial assessment of the perineum to ensure comprehensive care and effective management of the client's condition. Prioritizing assessment allows for a targeted and individualized approach to care, enhancing the client's overall well-being.
5. What is the most suitable snack food for the LPN/LVN to offer a client with myasthenia gravis who is at risk for altered nutritional status?
- A. Chocolate pudding.
- B. Graham crackers.
- C. Sugar-free gelatin.
- D. Apple slices.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Chocolate pudding is the best snack food choice for a client with myasthenia gravis at risk for altered nutritional status due to its nutrient density and soft texture, which can be easier for clients with swallowing difficulties to consume. Graham crackers, sugar-free gelatin, and apple slices may not provide the same level of nutrient density or ease of consumption for these clients. Graham crackers and apple slices may also pose challenges for clients with swallowing difficulties, while sugar-free gelatin, although a good option for some clients, may not offer the same level of nutrition as chocolate pudding.
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