Nursing Elites

1. A nurse on a med-surg unit is teaching a newly licensed nurse about tasks to delegate to APs. Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. An AP may take orthostatic blood pressure measurements from a client who reports dizziness.
• B. An AP may monitor the peripheral IV insertion site of a client who is receiving replacement fluids.
• C. An AP may perform a central line dressing change for a client who is ready for discharge.
• D. An AP may ambulate a client who had a stroke 2 days ago.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Delegating the task of ambulating a client who had a stroke 2 days ago to an AP is appropriate. This task falls within the scope of practice for an AP and can help promote mobility and prevent complications. Choices A, B, and C involve more complex nursing assessments or procedures that require a higher level of training and expertise. Taking orthostatic blood pressure measurements, monitoring a peripheral IV insertion site, and performing a central line dressing change should be tasks performed by licensed nurses to ensure proper assessment and management of the client's condition.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who reports abdominal pain. An assessment by the nurse reveals the client has a temperature of 39.2°C (102°F), heart rate of 105/min, a soft tender abdomen, and menses overdue by 2 days. Which of the following findings should be the nurse’s priority?

• A. Temperature
• B. Menses overdue
• C. Soft tender abdomen
• D. Heart rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Temperature. A high temperature of 39.2°C (102°F) indicates a fever, which can be a sign of infection or another serious condition. Investigating the cause of the fever is a priority to address any underlying health issue promptly. Menses overdue (choice B) could be relevant but is not as urgent as addressing a fever. A soft tender abdomen (choice C) is important but may be a consequence of the underlying condition causing the fever. Heart rate (choice D) is also significant, but the priority here is to identify the cause of the fever.

3. A client in an oncology clinic is being assessed by a nurse while undergoing treatment for ovarian cancer. Which of the following statements by the client indicates she is experiencing psychological distress?

• A. I keep having nightmares about my upcoming surgery.
• B. I feel more energetic than I did before.
• C. I have been making plans for the future.
• D. I am looking forward to starting my new treatment.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer as nightmares about upcoming surgery indicate psychological distress commonly associated with fears, anxiety, and stress related to the treatment. Choices B, C, and D suggest positive emotions and proactive behaviors that are not typical signs of psychological distress in this context. Feeling more energetic, making future plans, and looking forward to treatment are generally positive indicators of coping and adjustment to the situation.

4. A healthcare provider is providing teaching about health promotion guidelines to a group of young adult male clients. Which of the following guidelines should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Obtain a tetanus booster every 5 years.
• B. Obtain a herpes zoster immunization by age 50.
• C. Have a dental examination every 6 months.
• D. Have a testicular examination every 2 years.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Having a dental examination every 6 months is crucial for young adult males as it helps in maintaining good oral health and detecting any potential issues early on. Tetanus booster every 10 years is recommended for adults, not every 5 years (Choice A). Herpes zoster immunization is typically recommended for individuals aged 60 and older, not by age 50 (Choice B). While testicular self-examination is important for detecting testicular cancer, routine clinical testicular examinations are not generally needed every 2 years (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is to have a dental examination every 6 months.

5. A client is in the radiology department at 0900 when the prescription levofloxacin (Levaquin) 500 mg IV q24h is scheduled to be administered. The client returns to the unit at 1300. What is the best intervention for the LPN/LVN to implement?

• A. Contact the healthcare provider and complete a medication variance form.
• B. Administer the Levaquin at 1300 and resume the 0900 schedule the next morning.
• C. Notify the charge nurse and complete an incident report to explain the missed dose.
• D. Give the missed dose at 1300 and change the schedule to administer daily at 1300.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention is to give the missed dose at 1300 and adjust the schedule to administer daily at 1300. This approach ensures that the client receives the correct total daily dose of levofloxacin. Choice A is incorrect because contacting the healthcare provider and completing a medication variance form would not address the immediate need to administer the missed dose. Choice B is incorrect as administering the missed dose at 1300 and resuming the 0900 schedule the next morning would result in a missed dose for that day. Choice C is not the best course of action as notifying the charge nurse and completing an incident report should come after addressing the immediate need to administer the missed dose and adjusting the schedule for future doses.

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