Nursing Elites

1. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports diarrhea and decreased urination for 4 days. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to assess the client's skin turgor?

• A. Grasp a skin fold on the chest under the clavicle, release it, and note whether it springs back
• B. Pinch the skin on the back of the hand and observe for elasticity
• C. Assess the skin turgor on the abdomen by pinching the skin
• D. Check the skin turgor by pressing on the forearm and observing the rebound

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To assess skin turgor, the nurse should grasp a skin fold on the chest under the clavicle, release it, and note whether it springs back. This method is preferred for older adults and in cases of significant fluid imbalance. Option B is incorrect as assessing skin turgor on the back of the hand is not the standard assessment site for skin turgor. Option C is incorrect as the abdomen is not the typical area for assessing skin turgor; the chest under the clavicle is a more accurate site. Option D is incorrect as pressing on the forearm is not the appropriate site for evaluating skin turgor; the chest under the clavicle is the recommended location for this assessment.

2. During auscultation of a client experiencing chest pain worsened by inspiration, a nurse hears a high-pitched scratching sound in both systole and diastole with the diaphragm of the stethoscope placed at the left sternal border. Which of the following heart sounds should the nurse document?

• A. Pericardial friction rub
• B. Murmur
• C. S1 and S2
• D. Bruit

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Pericardial friction rub.' A pericardial friction rub is a high-pitched, scratching sound heard in both systole and diastole, which is characteristic of pericardial inflammation. This sound is different from a murmur, which is a swooshing or blowing sound due to turbulent blood flow. S1 and S2 are normal heart sounds, and a bruit is a whooshing sound caused by turbulent blood flow in an artery, not related to pericardial inflammation.

3. A parent asks a nurse about his infant's expected physical development during the first year of life. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. A 10-month-old infant can pull up to a standing position.
• B. A 6-month-old infant can walk with assistance.
• C. A 12-month-old infant can jump with both feet.
• D. An 8-month-old infant can crawl on hands and knees.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. By 10 months, infants can typically pull up to a standing position as part of their physical development. Walking with assistance usually begins around 9-12 months, not at 6 months (choice B). Jumping with both feet is a skill that usually develops around 24 months, not at 12 months (choice C). Crawling on hands and knees typically starts around 6-9 months, not at 8 months (choice D). Therefore, the most accurate information to include for an infant's expected physical development at 10 months is the ability to pull up to a standing position.

4. A nurse is caring for a postoperative client following knee arthroplasty who requires thigh-high compression sleeves. What should the nurse do?

• A. Make sure two fingers can fit under the sleeve.
• B. Apply the sleeve tightly to prevent blood clots.
• C. Ensure the sleeve is snug and comfortable.
• D. Check that the sleeve is loose enough to avoid constriction.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to make sure two fingers can fit under the sleeve. This allows for proper circulation and ensures that the sleeve is not too tight, which can lead to complications such as impaired blood flow or tissue damage. Choice B is incorrect because applying the sleeve tightly can actually cause harm rather than prevent blood clots. Choice C is incorrect as snugness alone may not guarantee proper fit. Choice D is incorrect as a sleeve that is too loose can be ineffective in providing the necessary compression.

5. A client with cardiovascular disease is being taught by a nurse how to reduce sodium and cholesterol intake. The nurse understands that the most significant factor in planning dietary changes for this client is:

• A. Client’s financial resources
• B. Involvement of the client in planning the change
• C. Availability of low-sodium foods
• D. Frequency of dietary counseling sessions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most significant factor in planning dietary changes for a client with cardiovascular disease is the involvement of the client in planning the change. By involving the client in the planning process, the nurse ensures that the client takes ownership of their health and is more likely to adhere to and succeed in modifying dietary habits. This empowerment and engagement enhance the client's motivation and commitment to making sustainable changes. Financial resources, availability of low-sodium foods, and frequency of dietary counseling sessions are important considerations but are not as crucial as the client's active involvement in the planning process.

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