Nursing Elites

1. A nurse at a health department is planning strategies related to heart disease. Which of the following activities should the nurse include as part of primary prevention?

• A. Providing cholesterol screening
• B. Teaching about a healthy diet
• C. Providing information about antihypertensive medications
• D. Developing a list of cardiac rehabilitation programs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Teaching about a healthy diet is considered a primary prevention activity. Primary prevention aims to prevent the onset of a disease or health problem. Educating individuals on healthy lifestyle choices, such as diet modification, falls under primary prevention. Providing cholesterol screening (choice A) is a secondary prevention measure aimed at early detection. Offering information about antihypertensive medications (choice C) falls under secondary prevention, focusing on controlling risk factors. Developing a list of cardiac rehabilitation programs (choice D) is part of tertiary prevention, focusing on rehabilitation and improving outcomes post-disease onset.

2. A client diagnosed with a terminal illness asks the nurse about the nurse’s religious beliefs related to death and dying. An appropriate nursing response is to:

• A. Share personal beliefs
• B. Encourage the client to express their thoughts about death and dying
• C. Redirect the conversation to medical treatment
• D. Inform the client that the nurse’s beliefs are not relevant

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the client to express their own thoughts about death and dying is an appropriate nursing response in this situation. It allows the client to explore and express their feelings, fears, and beliefs, facilitating a therapeutic conversation. Sharing personal beliefs (choice A) may not be appropriate as it could impose the nurse's beliefs on the client and hinder open discussion. Redirecting the conversation to medical treatment (choice C) may avoid addressing the client's emotional and spiritual needs. Informing the client that the nurse’s beliefs are not relevant (choice D) dismisses the client's concerns and does not encourage open communication.

3. A client admitted with abdominal pain tells the nurse that her father died recently, and she begins crying while talking about him. The nurse determines that the client’s temperature is 39.2°C (102.6°F), her abdomen is soft without tenderness, and her menses are overdue by 2 days. To which observation should the nurse give priority attention?

• A. The client’s temperature
• B. The client’s menses are overdue
• C. The client’s crying
• D. The client’s soft abdomen

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. An overdue menses might indicate a potential cause of abdominal pain, especially in the context of recent emotional stress. While the client's temperature, crying, and soft abdomen are important observations, the priority should be given to the overdue menses as it could provide crucial information related to the abdominal pain and the client's overall health status. The emotional distress may have a secondary impact on the physical symptoms, making the menstrual status a critical observation to address first.

4. A client is being taught about medications at discharge. Which statement should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the instructions?

• A. I can open the time-release capsule with the beads in it and sprinkle them on my oatmeal.
• B. If I am having difficulty swallowing, I will add the liquid medication to a prepared package of pudding.
• C. I can crush the enteric-coated pill if needed.
• D. I will eat two crackers with the pain pills.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Adding liquid medication to pudding can help with swallowing difficulties, demonstrating understanding of the instructions. Options A and C are incorrect as altering time-release capsules and enteric-coated pills is not recommended in medication administration. Option A is incorrect as time-release capsules should not be opened and sprinkled on food, affecting their efficacy. Option C is incorrect as crushing enteric-coated pills can affect their absorption. Option D is unrelated to medication administration and does not demonstrate understanding of the instructions.

5. The healthcare provider prescribes furosemide (Lasix) 15 mg IV stat. On hand is Lasix 20 mg/2 ml. How many milliliters should the LPN/LVN administer?

• A. 1 ml.
• B. 1.5 ml.
• C. 1.75 ml.
• D. 2 ml.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the correct dose of 15 mg, the LPN/LVN should administer 1.5 ml of Lasix (20 mg/2 ml). This calculation ensures precise dosing. Choice A (1 ml) is too low and would provide only 10 mg, while choice C (1.75 ml) and choice D (2 ml) would exceed the prescribed dose, resulting in potential adverse effects. It is important for the LPN/LVN to administer the exact prescribed dose to ensure therapeutic efficacy and avoid unnecessary complications.

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