a client with pneumonia has a decrease in oxygen saturation from 94 to 88 while ambulating based on these findings which intervention should the lpnlv
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HESI LPN

HESI Fundamental Practice Exam

1. A client with pneumonia has a decrease in oxygen saturation from 94% to 88% while ambulating. Based on these findings, which intervention should the LPN/LVN implement first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention is to assist the client back to bed. A decrease in oxygen saturation while ambulating indicates hypoxemia, and the immediate priority is to stabilize oxygen levels. Returning the client to bed allows for rest and decreased oxygen demand, potentially preventing further desaturation. Encouraging continued ambulation (Choice B) may worsen the hypoxemia by increasing oxygen demand. Obtaining portable oxygen (Choice C) is essential but should not delay addressing the low oxygen saturation. Moving the oximetry probe (Choice D) may not address the underlying cause of decreased oxygen saturation and should not be the first intervention.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric (NG) tube. Which action should the LPN/LVN take to maintain patency of the tube?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action to maintain patency of a nasogastric (NG) tube is to flush the tube with water before and after medication administration. Flushing helps prevent clogging and ensures that the tube remains clear for proper functioning. Securing the tube to the client's gown (Choice B) is important for stability but does not directly address tube patency. Checking the placement of the tube by auscultation (Choice C) is crucial for verifying correct placement but does not specifically relate to maintaining tube patency. Irrigating the tube with normal saline every shift (Choice D) is not a routine practice for maintaining tube patency and can lead to electrolyte imbalances.

3. A client with a history of severe anxiety is scheduled for surgery. Which preoperative medication is the most appropriate for the LPN/LVN to administer to this client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lorazepam (Ativan) is the most appropriate preoperative medication for a client with severe anxiety. Lorazepam belongs to the benzodiazepine class and is commonly used to manage anxiety before surgical procedures due to its anxiolytic properties. Morphine sulfate and Meperidine (Demerol) are opioid analgesics, not typically indicated for preoperative anxiety. Promethazine (Phenergan) is an antihistamine used for nausea and vomiting, not anxiety management.

4. The nurse is caring for a 4-year-old 2 hours after tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy. Which of the following assessments must be reported immediately?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Increased restlessness must be reported immediately as it may indicate bleeding or other complications post-tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy. This could be a sign of a developing issue that requires urgent intervention. Vomiting of dark emesis, complaints of throat pain, and an apical heart rate of 110 are important to monitor but do not indicate an immediate need for reporting as compared to the potential seriousness of increased restlessness in this scenario.

5. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. What information should the LPN include when teaching the client about this medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Report any signs of infection to the healthcare provider immediately.' Methotrexate is an immunosuppressant medication commonly used to treat rheumatoid arthritis. It can lower the immune system's ability to fight infections, making it crucial for clients to promptly report any signs of infection to prevent serious complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because avoiding sunlight, taking the medication with food, and increasing fluid intake are not specific to methotrexate therapy and are not primary concerns associated with this medication.

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