HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Study Guide
1. When a nurse assigned to a manipulative client for 5 days becomes aware of feelings of reluctance to interact with the client, what should be the next action by the nurse?
- A. Discuss the feeling of reluctance with an objective peer or supervisor
- B. Limit contact with the client to avoid reinforcement of the manipulative behavior
- C. Confront the client about the negative effects of behaviors on other clients and staff
- D. Develop a behavior modification plan that will promote more functional behavior
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse in this situation is to discuss the feeling of reluctance with an objective peer or supervisor. By doing so, the nurse can address their emotions professionally and seek guidance on how to manage the situation effectively. This approach allows the nurse to receive support and potentially gain insights on how to navigate interactions with the manipulative client. Option B is incorrect because avoiding the client may not address the underlying issues causing the reluctance and can impact the quality of care provided. Option C is inappropriate as confronting the client directly about negative behaviors may escalate the situation and harm the therapeutic relationship. Option D is not the immediate action needed in this scenario; it is essential to address the nurse's feelings first before considering behavior modification plans.
2. A 46-year-old female client has been on antipsychotic neuroleptic medication for the past three days. She has had a decrease in psychotic behavior and appears to be responding well to the medication. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. Which action will the nurse initiate?
- A. Place the client on seizure precautions and monitor closely.
- B. Immediately transfer the client to the ICU.
- C. Report the symptoms to the charge nurse and document in the client's chart.
- D. No action is required at this time as these are known side effects of such medications.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: These symptoms are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), which is a severe and life-threatening reaction to neuroleptic drugs. The major symptoms include fever, rigidity, autonomic instability, and encephalopathy. Respiratory failure, cardiovascular collapse, arrhythmias, and/or renal failure can lead to death. This is an emergency situation requiring immediate critical care, thus the correct action is to transfer the client to the ICU (B). Seizure precautions (A) are not relevant in this scenario. Merely describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them (C) or taking no action assuming these are common side effects (D) fail to address the critical nature of the situation and the urgency of immediate intervention.
3. While caring for the client during the first hour after delivery, the nurse determines that the uterus is boggy and there is vaginal bleeding. What should be the nurse's first action?
- A. Check vital signs
- B. Massage the fundus
- C. Offer a bedpan
- D. Check for perineal lacerations
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when encountering a boggy uterus and vaginal bleeding after delivery is to massage the fundus. Massaging the fundus helps the uterus contract, which can reduce vaginal bleeding. Checking vital signs may be important but addressing the uterine atony and bleeding takes precedence. Offering a bedpan or checking for perineal lacerations are not the immediate actions needed to manage postpartum hemorrhage.
4. A community health nurse is conducting a neighborhood discussion group about disaster planning. What information regarding transmission of anthrax should the nurse provide to the group?
- A. Infection is acquired when anthrax spores enter a host.
- B. Mature anthrax bacteria live dormant on inanimate objects.
- C. Spores cannot survive for extended periods outside a living host.
- D. Anthrax is transmitted by respiratory droplets from person to person.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct information the nurse should provide is that anthrax infection occurs when spores enter a host. Choice B is incorrect as mature anthrax bacteria do not live dormant on inanimate objects. Choice C is incorrect as anthrax spores can survive for extended periods outside a living host. Choice D is incorrect as anthrax is not transmitted by respiratory droplets from person to person.
5. The nurse is admitting a child with a Wilms tumor. Which is the initial assessment finding associated with this tumor?
- A. Abdominal swelling
- B. Weight gain
- C. Hypotension
- D. Increased urinary output
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Abdominal swelling is frequently the initial assessment finding associated with a Wilms tumor. This swelling is caused by the tumor's mass in the kidney, leading to abdominal distension. Weight gain (Choice B) is less likely as a primary finding, as it may occur later due to tumor growth or fluid retention. Hypotension (Choice C) is not typically associated with Wilms tumor unless severe complications like hemorrhage develop. Increased urinary output (Choice D) is not a common initial finding; instead, hematuria or other urinary changes may be observed later in the disease process.