HESI LPN
Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI
1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presented with shortness of breath. Oxygen therapy was started at 2 liters/minute via nasal cannula. The arterial blood gases (ABGs) after treatment were pH 7.36, PaO2 52, PaCO2 59, HCO3 33. Which statement describes the most likely cause of the simultaneous increase in both PaO2 and PaCO2?
- A. The client is hyperventilating due to anxiety.
- B. The hypoxic drive was reduced by the oxygen therapy.
- C. The client is experiencing respiratory alkalosis.
- D. The client is experiencing metabolic acidosis.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Oxygen therapy can reduce the hypoxic drive in COPD patients, leading to increased PaCO2 levels while improving oxygenation (PaO2). In this case, the increase in PaO2 and PaCO2 is due to the reduction of the hypoxic drive by the supplemental oxygen. Choice A is incorrect because hyperventilation would lead to decreased PaCO2. Choice C is incorrect as the ABG values do not indicate respiratory alkalosis. Choice D is incorrect as the ABG values do not support metabolic acidosis.
2. The nurse is providing postoperative care for a client who had a thyroidectomy. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Hoarseness and weak voice
- B. Calcium level of 8.0 mg/dL (2.0 mmol/L)
- C. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute
- D. Difficulty swallowing
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Difficulty swallowing can indicate swelling or hematoma formation, which may compromise the airway and requires immediate intervention. Hoarseness and a weak voice are expected post-thyroidectomy due to manipulation of the laryngeal nerves but do not require immediate intervention. A calcium level of 8.0 mg/dL is within the normal range (8.5-10.5 mg/dL) and may not require immediate intervention. A heart rate of 110 beats per minute may be elevated due to stress or pain postoperatively, but it does not indicate an immediate threat to the airway.
3. Which dietary modification is most appropriate for a client with nephrotic syndrome?
- A. High protein, low sodium
- B. Low protein, high sodium
- C. High protein, high potassium
- D. Low protein, low sodium
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most appropriate dietary modification for a client with nephrotic syndrome is a low protein, low sodium diet. This diet helps reduce the workload on the kidneys and manage edema, which are common issues in nephrotic syndrome. Choice A, high protein, low sodium, is not recommended because excessive protein intake can further strain the kidneys. Choice B, low protein, high sodium, is inappropriate as high sodium can worsen fluid retention and hypertension. Choice C, high protein, high potassium, is not ideal as high potassium levels can be problematic for individuals with kidney issues.
4. A male client tells the nurse that he is experiencing burning on urination, and assessment reveals that he had sexual intercourse four days ago with a woman he casually met. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Observe the perineal area for a chancroid-like lesion.
- B. Obtain a specimen of urethral drainage for culture.
- C. Assess for perineal itching, erythema, and excoriation.
- D. Identify all sexual partners in the last four days.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate action for the nurse to take is to obtain a specimen of urethral drainage for culture. This procedure can help diagnose the cause of burning on urination, which could be indicative of a sexually transmitted infection. Option A, observing for a chancroid-like lesion, may not be the most immediate or relevant action in this case. Option C, assessing for perineal itching, erythema, and excoriation, is important but obtaining a culture specimen would provide more specific diagnostic information. Option D, identifying all sexual partners, is relevant for contact tracing but obtaining a culture specimen is the priority to determine the current infection status.
5. When is the best time to administer pancreatic enzyme replacement?
- A. Before meals and snacks
- B. Before bedtime
- C. Early in the morning
- D. After meals and snacks
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer pancreatic enzyme replacement before meals and snacks. This timing is crucial as it allows the enzymes to assist in the digestion of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins that are consumed during the meals. Administering the replacement after meals and snacks would not be effective as the enzymes need to be present in the digestive system when food is consumed. Options B and C are incorrect as they do not align with the optimal timing for pancreatic enzyme replacement administration.
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