a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease copd presented with shortness of breath oxygen therapy was started at 2 litersminute via nasal can
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HESI LPN

Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presented with shortness of breath. Oxygen therapy was started at 2 liters/minute via nasal cannula. The arterial blood gases (ABGs) after treatment were pH 7.36, PaO2 52, PaCO2 59, HCO3 33. Which statement describes the most likely cause of the simultaneous increase in both PaO2 and PaCO2?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oxygen therapy can reduce the hypoxic drive in COPD patients, leading to increased PaCO2 levels while improving oxygenation (PaO2). In this case, the increase in PaO2 and PaCO2 is due to the reduction of the hypoxic drive by the supplemental oxygen. Choice A is incorrect because hyperventilation would lead to decreased PaCO2. Choice C is incorrect as the ABG values do not indicate respiratory alkalosis. Choice D is incorrect as the ABG values do not support metabolic acidosis.

2. An older female client has normal saline infusing at 45 ml/hour. She complains of pain at the insertion of the IV catheter. There is no redness or edema around the IV site. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this scenario is to determine what IV medications have recently been administered. This is important to identify if the pain at the IV site is related to a medication infusion. Slowing the infusion rate (choice B) may not address the underlying cause of the pain. Applying a warm compress (choice C) is not necessary since there is no redness or edema around the IV site. Discontinuing the IV line and starting a new one (choice D) is a drastic step and should not be the first action taken without investigating the cause of the pain.

3. Which instruction should be included in the discharge teaching plan for a client who has had a cataract extraction today?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the discharge teaching plan for a client who has had a cataract extraction is that light housekeeping is safe to do, but heavy lifting should be avoided to prevent increased intraocular pressure. Choice A is incorrect as the eye shield is usually worn at night to protect the eye. Choice B is incorrect as eye ointment is usually applied after eye drops to avoid washing away the ointment. Choice D is incorrect as sexual activities should be avoided until the follow-up appointment to prevent complications.

4. What is the main characteristic of cystic fibrosis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The main characteristic of cystic fibrosis is the production of excessive, thick mucus. This thick mucus leads to blockages in the airways, digestive system, and other organs. Choice A is incorrect because while individuals with cystic fibrosis are more prone to respiratory infections, the main characteristic is the mucus production. Choice B is incorrect as cystic fibrosis is characterized by the overproduction, not underproduction, of exocrine glands. Choice D is also incorrect as the mucus produced in cystic fibrosis is thick, not thin.

5. The nurse is reviewing blood pressure readings for a group of clients on a medical unit. Which client is at the highest risk for complications related to hypertension?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An elevated serum creatinine level indicates kidney damage, which significantly increases the risk of complications from hypertension. High blood pressure can damage the kidneys over time, leading to impaired kidney function. Choices A, B, and C do not directly correlate with increased risk of complications related to hypertension. Choice A focuses on obesity and overeating, Choice B on anemia and alcohol consumption, and Choice C on a diet high in sodium and nitrates, none of which are as directly related to hypertension complications as kidney damage.

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