Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presented with shortness of breath. Oxygen therapy was started at 2 liters/minute via nasal cannula. The arterial blood gases (ABGs) after treatment were pH 7.36, PaO2 52, PaCO2 59, HCO3 33. Which statement describes the most likely cause of the simultaneous increase in both PaO2 and PaCO2?

• A. The client is hyperventilating due to anxiety.
• B. The hypoxic drive was reduced by the oxygen therapy.
• C. The client is experiencing respiratory alkalosis.
• D. The client is experiencing metabolic acidosis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oxygen therapy can reduce the hypoxic drive in COPD patients, leading to increased PaCO2 levels while improving oxygenation (PaO2). In this case, the increase in PaO2 and PaCO2 is due to the reduction of the hypoxic drive by the supplemental oxygen. Choice A is incorrect because hyperventilation would lead to decreased PaCO2. Choice C is incorrect as the ABG values do not indicate respiratory alkalosis. Choice D is incorrect as the ABG values do not support metabolic acidosis.

2. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is being treated with warfarin. Which dietary instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Avoid foods high in vitamin C
• B. Increase intake of green leafy vegetables
• C. Limit intake of foods high in vitamin K
• D. Avoid dairy products

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Limit intake of foods high in vitamin K'. Vitamin K can interfere with the effectiveness of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication commonly used to treat conditions like deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Patients on warfarin should maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K-rich foods and be monitored closely. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because avoiding foods high in vitamin C, increasing intake of green leafy vegetables, and avoiding dairy products are not essential dietary instructions for a client on warfarin therapy for DVT.

3. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the heparin?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Prothrombin time (PT)
• D. International normalized ratio (INR)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). This test is used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. A complete blood count (CBC) (choice A) is not specific for monitoring heparin therapy. Prothrombin time (PT) (choice C) and International normalized ratio (INR) (choice D) are more commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin.

4. A client is receiving a continuous infusion of normal saline at 125 ml/hour post abdominal surgery. The client is drowsy and complaining of constant abdominal pain and a headache. Urine output is 800 ml over the past 24h with a central venous pressure of 15 mmHg. The nurse notes respiratory crackle and bounding central pulses. Vital signs: temperature 101.2°F, Heart rate 96 beats/min, Respirations 24 breaths/min, and Blood pressure 160/90 mmHg. Which interventions should the nurse implement first?

• A. Review the last administration of IV pain medication.
• B. Administer a PRN dose of acetaminophen.
• C. Decrease IV fluids to keep the vein open (KVO) rate.
• D. Calculate total intake and output.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease IV fluids to the keep vein open (KVO) rate. The client is showing signs of fluid volume excess, such as drowsiness, headache, elevated CVP, crackles, bounding pulses, and increased blood pressure. Decreasing the IV fluids will help prevent further fluid overload. Reviewing the last administration of IV pain medication (Choice A) may be necessary but addressing the fluid balance issue is the priority. Administering a PRN dose of acetaminophen (Choice B) may help with the headache but does not address the underlying fluid overload. Calculating total intake and output (Choice D) is important but does not directly address the immediate issue of fluid overload and its associated symptoms.

5. A female client who was involved in a motor vehicle collision is admitted with a fractured left femur which is immobilized using a fracture traction splint in preparation for an open reduction internal fixation (ORIF). The nurse determines that her distal pulses are diminished in the left foot. Which interventions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply)

• A. Verify pedal pulses using a doppler pulse device.
• B. Monitor left leg for pain, pallor, paresthesia, paralysis, pressure.
• C. Evaluate the application of the splint to the left leg.
• D.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: It is crucial for the nurse to evaluate the application of the splint to the left leg in a client with diminished distal pulses. This assessment helps ensure that the splint is not causing any compromise to circulation. Verifying pulses and monitoring for leg conditions are important interventions but do not directly address the issue with the splint application in this scenario, making them less relevant.

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