Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presented with shortness of breath. Oxygen therapy was started at 2 liters/minute via nasal cannula. The arterial blood gases (ABGs) after treatment were pH 7.36, PaO2 52, PaCO2 59, HCO3 33. Which statement describes the most likely cause of the simultaneous increase in both PaO2 and PaCO2?

• A. The client is hyperventilating due to anxiety.
• B. The hypoxic drive was reduced by the oxygen therapy.
• C. The client is experiencing respiratory alkalosis.
• D. The client is experiencing metabolic acidosis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oxygen therapy can reduce the hypoxic drive in COPD patients, leading to increased PaCO2 levels while improving oxygenation (PaO2). In this case, the increase in PaO2 and PaCO2 is due to the reduction of the hypoxic drive by the supplemental oxygen. Choice A is incorrect because hyperventilation would lead to decreased PaCO2. Choice C is incorrect as the ABG values do not indicate respiratory alkalosis. Choice D is incorrect as the ABG values do not support metabolic acidosis.

2. An older adult woman with a long history of COPD is admitted with progressive shortness of breath and a persistent cough, is anxious, and is complaining of dry mouth. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer a prescribed sedative
• B. Encourage client to drink water
• C. Apply a high flow venturi mask
• D. Assist her to an upright position

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assisting the client to an upright position is the most appropriate intervention in this situation. Placing the client upright helps improve lung expansion by reducing diaphragmatic pressure, facilitating better air exchange, and increasing oxygenation. This position also aids in easing breathing efforts. Administering a sedative (Choice A) may further depress the respiratory system, worsening the breathing problem. Encouraging the client to drink water (Choice B) may not directly address the respiratory distress caused by COPD. Applying a high flow venturi mask (Choice C) may be beneficial in some cases but assisting the client to an upright position should be the priority to optimize respiratory function.

3. During a paracentesis, two liters of fluid are removed from the abdomen of a client with ascites. A drainage bag is placed, and 50 ml of straw-colored fluid drains within the first hour. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Palpate for abdominal distention
• B. Send fluid to the lab for analysis
• C. Continue to monitor the fluid output
• D. Clamp the drainage tube for 5 minutes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Continuing to monitor the fluid output is the appropriate action in this situation. Monitoring the fluid output helps the nurse assess the client's ongoing response to the procedure and detect any sudden changes, such as increased or decreased drainage rate, which could indicate complications. Palpating for abdominal distention, sending fluid to the lab for analysis, or clamping the drainage tube are not necessary actions at this point, as the priority is to monitor the client's condition post-procedure.

4. Which dietary modification is most appropriate for a client with nephrotic syndrome?

• A. High protein, low sodium
• B. Low protein, high sodium
• C. High protein, high potassium
• D. Low protein, low sodium

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate dietary modification for a client with nephrotic syndrome is a low protein, low sodium diet. This diet helps reduce the workload on the kidneys and manage edema, which are common issues in nephrotic syndrome. Choice A, high protein, low sodium, is not recommended because excessive protein intake can further strain the kidneys. Choice B, low protein, high sodium, is inappropriate as high sodium can worsen fluid retention and hypertension. Choice C, high protein, high potassium, is not ideal as high potassium levels can be problematic for individuals with kidney issues.

5. A client with liver cirrhosis is at risk for developing hepatic encephalopathy. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Kussmaul respirations
• B. Asterixis (flapping tremor)
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Asterixis, also known as a flapping tremor, is a common sign of hepatic encephalopathy, indicating neurological dysfunction due to liver failure. Kussmaul respirations (option A) are associated with metabolic acidosis, which is not a typical manifestation of hepatic encephalopathy. Bradycardia (option C) and hypertension (option D) are not typically associated with hepatic encephalopathy; in fact, hepatic encephalopathy is more commonly associated with alterations in mental status, neuromuscular abnormalities, and changes in behavior.

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