a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease copd presented with shortness of breath oxygen therapy was started at 2 litersminute via nasal can
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HESI LPN

Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presented with shortness of breath. Oxygen therapy was started at 2 liters/minute via nasal cannula. The arterial blood gases (ABGs) after treatment were pH 7.36, PaO2 52, PaCO2 59, HCO3 33. Which statement describes the most likely cause of the simultaneous increase in both PaO2 and PaCO2?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oxygen therapy can reduce the hypoxic drive in COPD patients, leading to increased PaCO2 levels while improving oxygenation (PaO2). In this case, the increase in PaO2 and PaCO2 is due to the reduction of the hypoxic drive by the supplemental oxygen. Choice A is incorrect because hyperventilation would lead to decreased PaCO2. Choice C is incorrect as the ABG values do not indicate respiratory alkalosis. Choice D is incorrect as the ABG values do not support metabolic acidosis.

2. What should the nurse assess in an infant who has been diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. In hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, a key assessment finding is an olive-shaped mass in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen, to the right of the midline. This mass is palpable and represents the hypertrophied pyloric muscle. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because although they may be present in infants with feeding problems, the definitive assessment for hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is the presence of an olive-shaped mass on the right side of the abdomen, not a history of diarrhea, gastric pain, or poor appetite.

3. The nurse is teaching a client how to collect a sputum specimen. Which steps should the nurse instruct the client to follow when collecting sputum?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to breathe deeply followed by coughing up the sputum. This method ensures that the specimen is collected from the lower respiratory tract and is not contaminated by saliva. Choice A (swallowing) does not result in sputum collection, while choice B (spitting into a cup) may lead to saliva contamination. Choice D (clearing the throat) is not an effective way to collect sputum as it may involve getting rid of saliva, not sputum.

4. A client with cancer is receiving chemotherapy with a known vesicant. The client's IV has been in place for 72 hours. The nurse determines that a new IV site cannot be obtained and leaves the present IV in place. What is the greatest clinical risk related to this situation?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Impaired skin integrity. In this situation, the greatest clinical risk is related to impaired skin integrity due to the potential extravasation of the vesicant. Vesicants are substances that can cause severe tissue damage if they leak into the surrounding tissues. Choices B, C, and D are not the most significant risks in this scenario. Fluid volume excess, acute pain, and peripheral neurovascular dysfunction are not directly associated with leaving the IV in place with a known vesicant for an extended period.

5. A client reports new onset hearing loss bilaterally after taking a medication with known ototoxic effects. Which type of hearing loss should the nurse suspect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sensorineural. Ototoxic medications can lead to sensorineural hearing loss by affecting the inner ear or auditory nerve. Conductive hearing loss is related to issues in the middle or outer ear, not typically caused by ototoxic medications. Mixed hearing loss is a combination of conductive and sensorineural components. Central hearing loss is related to the central nervous system, not commonly caused by ototoxic medications. Therefore, in this case, the nurse should suspect sensorineural hearing loss.

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