a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease copd presented with shortness of breath oxygen therapy was started at 2 litersminute via nasal can
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HESI LPN

Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presented with shortness of breath. Oxygen therapy was started at 2 liters/minute via nasal cannula. The arterial blood gases (ABGs) after treatment were pH 7.36, PaO2 52, PaCO2 59, HCO3 33. Which statement describes the most likely cause of the simultaneous increase in both PaO2 and PaCO2?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oxygen therapy can reduce the hypoxic drive in COPD patients, leading to increased PaCO2 levels while improving oxygenation (PaO2). In this case, the increase in PaO2 and PaCO2 is due to the reduction of the hypoxic drive by the supplemental oxygen. Choice A is incorrect because hyperventilation would lead to decreased PaCO2. Choice C is incorrect as the ABG values do not indicate respiratory alkalosis. Choice D is incorrect as the ABG values do not support metabolic acidosis.

2. The nurse is obtaining a client's fingerstick glucose level. After gently milking the client's finger, the nurse observes that the distal tip of the finger appears reddened and engorged. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When the nurse observes that the distal tip of the client's finger is reddened and engorged after milking, it indicates adequate blood flow. At this point, the appropriate action is to collect the blood sample for glucose level testing. Assessing radial pulse volume (Choice B) is unrelated to the situation and not necessary. Applying pressure to the site (Choice C) may disrupt the blood sample collection process. Selecting another finger (Choice D) is not warranted as the engorgement indicates sufficient blood flow for sampling.

3. The nurse is evaluating teaching about drug therapy to treat gout. Which statement by the client demonstrates an understanding of the use of allopurinol to treat Gout?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Taking allopurinol every day helps to prevent gout flare-ups by reducing uric acid levels.

4. A client with partial-thickness burns to the lower extremities is scheduled for whirlpool therapy to debride the burned area. Which intervention should the nurse implement before transporting the client to the physical therapy department?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering an analgesic before whirlpool therapy is the priority intervention in this scenario. Whirlpool therapy for debridement can be painful for the client with partial-thickness burns. Administering an analgesic before the procedure helps manage pain during the debridement process, ensuring the client's comfort. Applying a sterile dressing (Choice A) may be necessary after the whirlpool therapy but is not the immediate pre-transport intervention. Encouraging the client to drink fluids (Choice C) and ensuring nutritional needs are met (Choice D) are important aspects of care but are not specifically related to preparing the client for whirlpool therapy.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a chest tube. Which finding indicates that the chest tube is functioning properly?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tidaling in the water seal chamber indicates proper chest tube function. Tidaling refers to the rise and fall of fluid in the water seal with inhalation and exhalation, demonstrating the patency of the system. Continuous bubbling (Choice A) in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak. Absence of drainage in the collection chamber (Choice C) is not a desired finding as it suggests no drainage is occurring. A fluid level below the prescribed level in the suction control chamber (Choice D) may indicate inadequate suction.

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