a middle aged adult with major depressive disorder suffers from psychomotor retardation hypersomnia and low motivation which intervention is likely to
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Mental Health HESI Practice Questions

1. A middle-aged adult with major depressive disorder suffers from psychomotor retardation, hypersomnia, and low motivation. Which intervention is likely to be most effective in returning this client to a normal level of functioning?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Teaching the client to develop a plan for daily structured activities is the most effective intervention in this case. Creating a routine can help improve motivation and provide a sense of accomplishment, aiding in the recovery process. Option A, providing education on methods to enhance sleep, may address hypersomnia but does not directly target psychomotor retardation and low motivation. Option C, suggesting the client develop a list of pleasurable activities, may not address the need for structure and routine. Option D, encouraging the client to exercise, is beneficial but may not be as effective as creating a structured daily plan to address the client's specific symptoms.

2. On admission assessment, the nurse is obtaining subjective data about a client's sexual and reproductive status. The client states, 'I don't want to discuss this; it's private and personal.' Which response by the LVN/LPN is the most therapeutic?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct response is D. Respecting the client's privacy while acknowledging the difficulty of the situation and explaining the professional obligation to maintain confidentiality is the most therapeutic approach. This response shows empathy, understanding, and a commitment to confidentiality, which can help build trust and encourage the client to open up. Choices A, B, and C do not effectively address the client's concerns or emphasize the importance of confidentiality in a sensitive manner, making them less therapeutic responses in this situation.

3. A female client with severe depression who has been on antidepressants for two weeks suddenly becomes more energetic and talkative. What action should the RN take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A sudden increase in energy and talkativeness in a client with severe depression who has been on antidepressants for a short period may indicate an increased risk of suicide due to the potential shift from profound sadness to motivation to act. The first action the RN should take is to monitor the client closely for signs of suicidal behavior. Encouraging participation in group activities or praising the client for the apparent improvement may overlook the potential risk of suicidal behavior. While discussing the client's progress with the healthcare provider is important, the immediate concern is to ensure the client's safety by closely monitoring for any signs of suicidal ideation or behavior.

4. A client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder. The LPN/LVN notes that the client has not bathed or dressed in clean clothes for several days. What is the most appropriate intervention for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assist the client with activities of daily living. This intervention is the most appropriate as it directly addresses the client's immediate needs by providing assistance with personal hygiene and dressing. It promotes self-care and ensures the client's well-being. Encouraging the client to take a shower (Choice A) may not be effective if the client is unable to do so independently due to their condition. Providing clean clothes (Choice C) is important but does not address the client's need for assistance with personal care. Explaining the importance of personal hygiene (Choice D) may not be as effective as providing direct assistance in this situation.

5. Several clients with chronic mental illness and multiple substance abuse histories live in a group residential home and attend a daycare mental health facility where group and individual therapies are provided. The RN finds the common bathroom at the facility with sputum on the walls, urine in the sink and on the floors, and the toilet stopped up with tissue, paper towels, and feces. What is the priority issue that the RN should address?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority issue that the RN should address is infection control. The unsanitary conditions in the bathroom, with sputum on the walls, urine in the sink and on the floors, and the toilet clogged with tissue, paper towels, and feces, pose a significant health risk to all residents and staff. Addressing infection control is crucial to prevent the spread of diseases and ensure the well-being of everyone in the facility. Medication non-compliance is important but not the priority in this situation. The number of bathroom facilities, while relevant, is not the immediate concern when faced with unsanitary conditions. Acting out behaviors, though a valid concern in mental health settings, are not the priority when faced with such unsanitary and potentially infectious conditions.

Similar Questions

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A female client with major depression is prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). She reports experiencing increased energy but still feels sad and hopeless. What is the nurse's best response?
Based on non-compliance with the medication regimen, an adult client with a medical diagnosis of substance abuse and schizophrenia was recently switched from oral fluphenazine HCl (Prolixin) to IM fluphenazine decanoate (Prolixin Decanoate). What is most important to teach the client and family about this change in medication regimen?
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