HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health Practice Exam
1. A client who is diagnosed with schizophrenia is admitted to the hospital. The nurse assesses the client's mental status. Which assessment finding is most characteristic of a client with schizophrenia?
- A. Mood swings.
- B. Extreme sadness.
- C. Manipulative behavior.
- D. Flat affect.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Flat affect. Flat affect, which is a lack of emotional expression, is highly characteristic of schizophrenia. Mood swings (choice A) are more indicative of mood disorders rather than schizophrenia. Extreme sadness (choice B) could be seen in depression but is not as specific to schizophrenia. Manipulative behavior (choice C) is not a defining characteristic of schizophrenia; it may be seen in various psychiatric conditions but is not the most characteristic feature of schizophrenia.
2. The nurse is using the CAGE questionnaire as a screening tool for a client who is seeking help because his wife said he had a drinking problem. What information should the nurse explore in depth with the client based on this screening tool?
- A. Cancer screening results, anger, gastritis, daily alcohol intake.
- B. Efforts to cut down, annoyance with questions, guilt, drinking as an 'Eye-opener.'
- C. Consumption, liver enzyme, gastrointestinal complaints and bleeding.
- D. Minimizes drinking, frequently misses family events, guilt about drinking, amount of daily intake.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The CAGE questionnaire is used to identify problematic drinking behaviors. Choice B is correct because it includes key aspects that the nurse should explore further with the client. 'Efforts to cut down' can indicate acknowledgment of excessive drinking, 'guilt' reflects emotional distress related to drinking, and 'drinking as an 'Eye-opener'' suggests potential dependency. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the essential elements assessed by the CAGE questionnaire and may not provide relevant information for further evaluation of the client's drinking habits.
3. The wife of a client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia visits 2 days after her husband's admission and states to the nurse, 'Why isn't he eating? He's still talking about his food being poisoned.' Which of the following appraisals by the LPN/LVN is most accurate?
- A. The wife's inquiry is reasonable.
- B. Education about her husband's medication is needed.
- C. Her expectations of her husband are realistic.
- D. An increase in the client's medication is needed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The wife needs education about her husband's medication to understand how it affects his perceptions, including paranoid thoughts about food. Choice A is incorrect because the wife's inquiry reflects her lack of understanding of the situation rather than being reasonable. Choice C is incorrect as the husband's condition requires specialized care beyond what the wife might consider realistic. Choice D is incorrect as increasing medication should not be the immediate response; education and reassurance are key in this situation.
4. A young adult female client is admitted to a psychiatric facility with a medical diagnosis of bulimia nervosa. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority?
- A. Schedule the client for group therapy with other clients with bulimia nervosa.
- B. Assign the client's care to a nurse with relevant experience in eating disorders.
- C. Monitor the client carefully for binging and purging activities.
- D. Assess and report the client's electrolyte status to the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Assessing and reporting the client's electrolyte status to the healthcare provider is the highest priority in a client with bulimia nervosa. Electrolyte imbalances, such as hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis, are common due to purging behaviors associated with bulimia. Monitoring electrolyte levels is crucial to prevent life-threatening complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while therapy and monitoring for binging activities are important, addressing the electrolyte imbalances caused by purging behaviors takes precedence in the immediate care of a client with bulimia nervosa.
5. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is hospitalized for treatment. Which intervention is most important for the LPN/LVN to include in the client's plan of care?
- A. Allow the client to engage in compulsive behaviors as a way to reduce anxiety.
- B. Encourage the client to ignore the compulsive behaviors.
- C. Help the client to understand the purpose of compulsive behaviors.
- D. Work with the client to gradually reduce the frequency of compulsive behaviors.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with OCD is to work with them to gradually reduce the frequency of compulsive behaviors. This approach helps the client manage their condition effectively without causing undue distress. Allowing the client to engage in compulsive behaviors can reinforce the disorder rather than alleviate it. Encouraging the client to ignore compulsive behaviors does not address the core issue of OCD. While helping the client understand the purpose of compulsive behaviors can be beneficial, actively working to reduce these behaviors is more crucial in the treatment of OCD.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access