Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of bipolar disorder presents to the emergency department with symptoms of mania. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Administer prescribed medication to manage symptoms.
• B. Provide a calm environment with minimal stimulation.
• C. Encourage the client to express feelings and emotions.
• D. Reinforce the need for consistent medication adherence.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering prescribed medication to manage symptoms is the priority intervention for a client with symptoms of mania. During a manic episode, the client may be at risk of harm to self or others due to impulsivity and poor judgment. Medication helps stabilize the client, reduce manic symptoms, and prevent further escalation. Providing a calm environment (choice B) is important but not the priority when the client's safety is at risk. Encouraging expression of feelings (choice C) and reinforcing medication adherence (choice D) are valuable aspects of care but addressing the acute symptoms of mania takes precedence to ensure the client's immediate safety and well-being.

2. When developing a plan of care for a client in the psychiatric unit following aspiration of a caustic material related to a suicide attempt, which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority?

• A. Risk for injury.
• B. Ineffective coping mechanisms.
• C. Alteration in comfort.
• D. Ineffective breathing patterns.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client aspirates a caustic material, the priority nursing diagnosis should focus on addressing physiological concerns, particularly related to breathing patterns. Aspiration of caustic material can lead to airway compromise, respiratory distress, and potential lung damage. Therefore, monitoring and addressing ineffective breathing patterns are crucial for ensuring the client's immediate safety and well-being. Choices A, B, and C are important considerations in psychiatric care but are secondary to the critical physiological issue of ineffective breathing patterns in this scenario.

3. A 46-year-old female client has been on antipsychotic neuroleptic medication for the past three days. She has had a decrease in psychotic behavior and appears to be responding well to the medication. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. Which action will the nurse initiate?

• A. Place the client on seizure precautions and monitor closely.
• B. Immediately transfer the client to the ICU.
• C. Report the symptoms to the charge nurse and document in the client's chart.
• D. No action is required at this time as these are known side effects of such medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: These symptoms are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), which is a severe and life-threatening reaction to neuroleptic drugs. The major symptoms include fever, rigidity, autonomic instability, and encephalopathy. Respiratory failure, cardiovascular collapse, arrhythmias, and/or renal failure can lead to death. This is an emergency situation requiring immediate critical care, thus the correct action is to transfer the client to the ICU (B). Seizure precautions (A) are not relevant in this scenario. Merely describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them (C) or taking no action assuming these are common side effects (D) fail to address the critical nature of the situation and the urgency of immediate intervention.

4. A client with bipolar disorder is started on a regimen of valproic acid (Depakote). Which laboratory test is most important for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Liver function tests
• B. Kidney function tests
• C. Blood glucose levels
• D. Serum sodium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Liver function tests. Valproic acid can cause hepatotoxicity, leading to liver damage. Monitoring liver function tests is crucial to detect any early signs of liver impairment. Kidney function tests (Choice B) are not the most important to monitor in this case. Blood glucose levels (Choice C) and serum sodium levels (Choice D) are not directly affected by valproic acid and are not the priority for monitoring in a client taking this medication.

5. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client who was recently diagnosed with a mental illness. The client asks, 'Will I be able to live a normal life?' What is the best response for the nurse to provide?

• A. Yes, you will be able to live a normal life.
• B. Many people with mental illness lead full and productive lives.
• C. It will depend on your treatment and the choices you make.
• D. There is no normal; everyone is unique in their own way.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to provide the client with hope while acknowledging the importance of their treatment and choices. Choice C addresses the client's concern by highlighting the impact of their treatment and personal choices on their future. It encourages personal responsibility and active participation in their recovery. Choices A and B may sound reassuring, but they do not empower the client to take an active role in their well-being. Choice D, while promoting individuality, does not directly address the client's question about living a normal life after a mental illness diagnosis.

Similar Questions