Nursing Elites

1. A homeless person who is in the manic phase of bipolar disorder is admitted to the mental health unit. Which laboratory finding obtained on admission is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Decreased thyroid stimulating hormone level
• B. Elevated liver function profile
• C. Increased white blood cell count
• D. Decreased hematocrit and hemoglobin levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased thyroid stimulating hormone level. Hyperthyroidism causes an increased level of serum thyroid hormones (T3 and T4), which inhibit the release of TSH. In this case, a decreased TSH level can indicate hyperthyroidism, which can present with manic behavior. Elevated liver function profile (B) is not directly related to the manic phase of bipolar disorder. Increased white blood cell count (C) typically indicates an infection or inflammation, not directly related to the manic phase. Decreased hematocrit and hemoglobin levels (D) may suggest anemia but are not as crucial in the context of a manic phase of bipolar disorder.

2. A young adult male client, diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia, believes that the world is trying to poison him. What intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care?

• A. Remind the client that his suspicions are not true
• B. Ask one nurse to spend time with the client daily
• C. Encourage the client to participate in group activities
• D. Assign the client to a room closest to the activity room

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia who believes in paranoid delusions is to ask one nurse to spend time with the client daily. Establishing a trusting relationship with a consistent caregiver can help reduce anxiety and foster a sense of security. Choice A is incorrect because directly challenging the client's beliefs may increase distress. Choice C might overwhelm the client with paranoia in a group setting. Choice D does not address the need for a trusting relationship with a specific caregiver.

3. What is the most important goal of care for a client diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) who has been taking the benzodiazepine alprazolam (Xanax) long-term? The client will:

• A. Describe a decrease in anxiety using a 1 to 10 anxiety scale.
• B. State the importance of not abruptly stopping the medication.
• C. Not experience dizziness, lightheadedness, or sedation.
• D. Attend scheduled individual and group therapy sessions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The most important goal of care for a client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) taking alprazolam long-term is to ensure they understand the importance of not abruptly stopping the medication. Abruptly stopping benzodiazepines can lead to withdrawal symptoms and potential complications. Choice A is not the most critical goal as the focus should be on the safe continuation of the medication. Choice C is important but not as crucial as preventing abrupt discontinuation. Choice D is beneficial for overall treatment but not the most important goal in this scenario.

4. A 46-year-old female client has been on antipsychotic neuroleptic medication for the past three days. She has had a decrease in psychotic behavior and appears to be responding well to the medication. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. Which action will the nurse initiate?

• A. Place the client on seizure precautions and monitor closely.
• B. Immediately transfer the client to the ICU.
• C. Report the symptoms to the charge nurse and document in the client's chart.
• D. No action is required at this time as these are known side effects of such medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: These symptoms are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), which is a severe and life-threatening reaction to neuroleptic drugs. The major symptoms include fever, rigidity, autonomic instability, and encephalopathy. Respiratory failure, cardiovascular collapse, arrhythmias, and/or renal failure can lead to death. This is an emergency situation requiring immediate critical care, thus the correct action is to transfer the client to the ICU (B). Seizure precautions (A) are not relevant in this scenario. Merely describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them (C) or taking no action assuming these are common side effects (D) fail to address the critical nature of the situation and the urgency of immediate intervention.

5. Several clients with chronic mental illness and multiple substance abuse histories live in a group residential home and attend a daycare mental health facility where group and individual therapies are provided. The RN finds the common bathroom at the facility with sputum on the walls, urine in the sink and on the floors, and the toilet stopped up with tissue, paper towels, and feces. What is the priority issue that the RN should address?

• A. Medication non-compliance.
• B. Number of bathroom facilities.
• C. Infection control.
• D. Acting out behaviors.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority issue that the RN should address is infection control. The unsanitary conditions in the bathroom, with sputum on the walls, urine in the sink and on the floors, and the toilet clogged with tissue, paper towels, and feces, pose a significant health risk to all residents and staff. Addressing infection control is crucial to prevent the spread of diseases and ensure the well-being of everyone in the facility. Medication non-compliance is important but not the priority in this situation. The number of bathroom facilities, while relevant, is not the immediate concern when faced with unsanitary conditions. Acting out behaviors, though a valid concern in mental health settings, are not the priority when faced with such unsanitary and potentially infectious conditions.

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