Nursing Elites

1. Two days after his last drink, a male alcoholic client becomes agitated and yells at his wife and children, 'Stay away from me!' His vital signs are elevated. What nursing diagnosis has the highest priority?

• A. High risk for social isolation.
• B. Altered parenting.
• C. Ineffective individual coping.
• D. High risk for injury.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'High risk for injury.' The client's agitation, elevated vital signs, and aggressive behavior pose a threat to himself and his family. Addressing the risk for injury is the priority to ensure the safety of all individuals involved. Choices A, B, and C are not the highest priority in this scenario. 'High risk for social isolation' does not address the immediate physical safety concern. 'Altered parenting' and 'Ineffective individual coping' are important but not as urgent as the risk for injury in this situation.

2. A client with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) reports having frequent nightmares. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. Nightmares are common with PTSD and should decrease over time.
• B. Try to avoid thinking about the trauma before going to bed.
• C. Let's discuss some relaxation techniques you can use before bedtime.
• D. I will ask the healthcare provider to prescribe a sleep aid.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to discuss relaxation techniques with the client that can help reduce anxiety and stress before bedtime. This approach may potentially decrease the frequency of nightmares by promoting a more calming and peaceful pre-sleep routine. Choice A is incorrect because while nightmares can be common with PTSD, it is not guaranteed that they will decrease over time. Choice B is incorrect as avoiding thinking about the trauma may not address the underlying issue causing the nightmares. Choice D is incorrect as prescribing a sleep aid should be considered as a last resort after trying non-pharmacological interventions.

3. A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa. What is the most important intervention for the LPN/LVN to implement during the first 24 hours of hospitalization?

• A. Encourage the client to eat small, frequent meals.
• B. Monitor the client's vital signs and weight.
• C. Establish a trusting relationship with the client.
• D. Provide emotional support to the client.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's vital signs and weight. This intervention is crucial in assessing the severity of the client's condition and planning appropriate care. Vital signs and weight monitoring help in evaluating the client's physiological status and identifying any immediate concerns related to anorexia nervosa. Choices A, C, and D are important aspects of care for a client with anorexia nervosa; however, during the initial 24 hours of hospitalization, monitoring vital signs and weight takes precedence as it provides essential data for the client's ongoing management and treatment.

4. A client with major depressive disorder is started on fluoxetine (Prozac). What should the nurse include in the client's discharge teaching?

• A. It may take 4-6 weeks for the medication to be effective.
• B. You should take this medication at bedtime.
• C. Avoid consuming dairy products while taking this medication.
• D. You can stop taking the medication once you feel better.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "It may take 4-6 weeks for the medication to be effective." SSRIs like fluoxetine typically take 4-6 weeks to reach their full effect, so clients should be informed to expect a gradual improvement in symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because fluoxetine is usually taken in the morning to prevent sleep disturbances. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific need to avoid consuming dairy products while taking fluoxetine. Choice D is incorrect because clients should never stop taking antidepressants abruptly, as it can lead to withdrawal symptoms and worsening of the condition.

5. In the described scenario, a manic client threatens a nurse with physical violence after being told they cannot have a stripper perform. What is the most appropriate action for the LPN/LVN to take?

• A. Orient the client to time, person, and place
• B. Tell the client that the behavior is inappropriate
• C. Escort the manic client to her room, with assistance
• D. Tell the client that smoking privileges are revoked for 24 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this situation, where the manic client becomes verbally abusive and threatens physical violence, the most appropriate action for the LPN/LVN is to escort the client to her room with assistance. This action helps ensure the safety of both the client and the nurse, while also providing a controlled environment that can help de-escalate the situation. Choices A and B do not address the immediate safety concerns presented by the client's behavior. Choice D, revoking smoking privileges, is not directly related to the client's current behavior and does not address the threat of violence.

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