a client with borderline personality disorder engages in self mutilating behavior what is the most therapeutic nursing response
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Mental Health 2023

1. What is the most therapeutic nursing response for a client with borderline personality disorder who engages in self-mutilating behavior?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most therapeutic nursing response for a client with borderline personality disorder engaging in self-mutilating behavior is to discuss what the client was feeling before self-harming. This approach helps in exploring the underlying triggers and emotions that lead to self-harm. Option A is directive and may come across as judgmental rather than empathetic. Option C can lead to feelings of betrayal and breach of trust. Option D is a closed-ended question that may not facilitate open communication or exploration of emotions.

2. The nurse documents that a male client with paranoid schizophrenia is delusional. Which statement by the client confirms this assessment?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Believing that the nurse is trying to poison him with pills is a clear indication of delusional paranoia, a common symptom in paranoid schizophrenia. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to paranoid delusions and are more indicative of hallucinations or other forms of delusions not specific to paranoia.

3. On admission assessment, the nurse is obtaining subjective data about a client's sexual and reproductive status. The client states, 'I don't want to discuss this; it's private and personal.' Which response by the LVN/LPN is the most therapeutic?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct response is D. Respecting the client's privacy while acknowledging the difficulty of the situation and explaining the professional obligation to maintain confidentiality is the most therapeutic approach. This response shows empathy, understanding, and a commitment to confidentiality, which can help build trust and encourage the client to open up. Choices A, B, and C do not effectively address the client's concerns or emphasize the importance of confidentiality in a sensitive manner, making them less therapeutic responses in this situation.

4. A nurse is assessing a client with dementia who is showing signs of increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon. What is the most likely explanation for the client's symptoms?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sun-downing syndrome. Sun-downing syndrome is a phenomenon commonly seen in individuals with dementia, where they exhibit increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon or evening. This pattern of behavior is believed to be linked to disruptions in the circadian rhythm and can be triggered by factors such as fatigue, low lighting, or increased shadows during the evening. Choices A and B, anxiety and depression, may be comorbid conditions in individuals with dementia but are not the primary explanation for the symptoms described. While medication side effects (Choice D) should always be considered in a client with dementia, given the time-specific nature of the symptoms, sun-downing syndrome is the most likely explanation in this case.

5. A client with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder is prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). What is the most important side effect for the LPN/LVN to monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sexual dysfunction. When monitoring a client taking fluoxetine (Prozac), the LPN/LVN should prioritize observing for sexual dysfunction. This side effect is crucial to monitor as it can significantly impact the client's quality of life and may affect their adherence to the medication. Weight gain (choice A) is a possible side effect of fluoxetine but is not as critical as sexual dysfunction in terms of monitoring. Nausea (choice C) and constipation (choice D) are common side effects of fluoxetine, but they are generally less concerning compared to the impact of sexual dysfunction on the client's well-being and treatment compliance.

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