Nursing Elites

1. A client has a prescription for enteric-coated (EC) aspirin 325mg PO daily. The medication drawer contains one 325mg aspirin. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Contact the pharmacy and request the prescribed form of aspirin
• B. Instruct the client about the effects of the medication
• C. Administer the aspirin with a full glass of water or a small snack
• D. Withhold the aspirin until consulting with the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to contact the pharmacy and request the prescribed form of aspirin. Enteric-coated medications are designed to dissolve in the intestine, not the stomach, to avoid irritation. Therefore, it is essential to ensure the client receives the correct form of aspirin as prescribed. Instructing the client about the effects of the medication (choice B) is not necessary at this point as the issue is related to the form of the aspirin. Administering the aspirin with a full glass of water or a small snack (choice C) is not appropriate as it does not address the need for the correct form of the medication. Withholding the aspirin (choice D) without consulting the healthcare provider is not advisable as it may lead to a delay in the client receiving the necessary medication.

2. A client with type 1 diabetes is experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Administer glucagon intramuscularly
• B. Provide a complex carbohydrate snack
• C. Administer 50% dextrose intravenously
• D. Give 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority intervention for a client with type 1 diabetes experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia is to give 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate. In a hypoglycemic state, the priority is to quickly raise the blood glucose level. Administering glucagon intramuscularly (Choice A) is reserved for severe hypoglycemia when the client is unable to take oral carbohydrates. Providing a complex carbohydrate snack (Choice B) is beneficial after the initial treatment of hypoglycemia to prevent recurrence. Administering 50% dextrose intravenously (Choice C) is a more invasive intervention typically done in a hospital setting for severe cases.

3. Which structures are located in the subcutaneous layer of the skin?

• A. Sebaceous and sweat glands
• B. Melanin and keratin
• C. Sensory receptors and hair follicles
• D. Adipose cells and blood vessels

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Adipose cells and blood vessels. The subcutaneous layer, also known as the hypodermis, primarily consists of adipose (fat) tissue and blood vessels. Adipose tissue provides insulation, energy storage, and cushioning, while blood vessels supply nutrients and oxygen. Sebaceous and sweat glands are located in the dermis, which is the layer beneath the epidermis. Melanin and keratin are components of the epidermis, responsible for skin color and waterproofing, respectively. Sensory receptors and hair follicles are found in the dermis and extend into the subcutaneous layer but are not exclusive to it.

4. A client with hemorrhoids asks for information about a high fiber diet. Which breakfast menu items should the nurse suggest? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Raisin bran muffins
• B. Bowl of oatmeal
• C. Cup of raspberries
• D. Scrambled eggs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A high-fiber diet is beneficial for managing hemorrhoids as it helps maintain bowel regularity. Raisin bran muffins are a good choice for breakfast as they are high in fiber. Oatmeal is also a high-fiber option that aids digestion and prevents constipation. Raspberries are rich in fiber and contribute to a high-fiber diet. Scrambled eggs, on the other hand, are not high in fiber and do not provide the necessary fiber content needed for managing hemorrhoids.

5. A client with a diagnosis of hypertension is prescribed a thiazide diuretic. Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Hypokalemia.' Thiazide diuretics commonly cause potassium loss, which can lead to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is essential when a client is taking thiazide diuretics to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is an elevated level of potassium, which is not typically associated with thiazide diuretics. Hypernatremia (choice B) is an elevated level of sodium, and hypoglycemia (choice D) is low blood sugar, neither of which are directly linked to thiazide diuretic use.

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