Nursing Elites

1. A female client with major depression is prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). She reports experiencing increased energy but still feels sad and hopeless. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. ''These feelings are normal and will pass with time.''
• B. ''Increased energy can sometimes lead to increased risk for self-harm.''
• C. ''The medication needs more time to be effective.''
• D. ''Let's talk about the things that make you feel this way.''

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Increased energy without improvement in mood can increase the risk of self-harm in clients with depression. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize this potential risk and closely monitor the client for any signs of self-harm. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the client's persistent feelings of sadness and hopelessness as normal may invalidate her experiences. Choice C is incorrect as fluoxetine (Prozac) typically starts showing effectiveness within a few weeks, so further delay is concerning. Choice D is incorrect because while discussing the client's feelings is important, the immediate focus should be on addressing the potential risk of self-harm associated with increased energy.

2. The nurse is performing intake interviews at a psychiatric clinic. A female client with a known history of drug abuse reports that she had a heart attack four years ago. Use of which substance abuse places the client at the highest risk for myocardial infarction?

• A. Benzodiazepines
• B. Marijuana
• C. Methamphetamine
• D. Alcohol

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Methamphetamine use is strongly associated with cardiovascular risks, including myocardial infarction, due to its stimulant effects on the heart. Benzodiazepines (Choice A) are not typically associated with an increased risk of myocardial infarction. Marijuana (Choice B) is not commonly linked to heart attacks, though it can have other health effects. Alcohol (Choice D) abuse can lead to cardiovascular issues, but methamphetamine has a more direct and potent impact on the heart, making it the highest risk factor in this scenario.

3. When caring for a client with borderline personality disorder, what is the most effective nursing intervention?

• A. Set clear and consistent boundaries for the client.
• B. Allow the client to vent their feelings without interruption.
• C. Encourage the client to participate in group therapy.
• D. Provide the client with frequent reassurance and support.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Setting clear and consistent boundaries is essential when caring for a client with borderline personality disorder. This intervention helps provide structure, maintain a therapeutic relationship, and prevent manipulative behaviors. Allowing the client to vent feelings without interruption (Choice B) may not address the underlying issues effectively. Encouraging participation in group therapy (Choice C) can be beneficial but setting boundaries is more crucial. Providing frequent reassurance and support (Choice D) may inadvertently reinforce maladaptive behaviors instead of promoting growth and independence.

4. What is the priority intervention for a client with major depressive disorder admitted to the psychiatric unit with suicidal ideation?

• A. Conduct a thorough suicide risk assessment.
• B. Encourage the client to verbalize their feelings.
• C. Provide the client with positive affirmations.
• D. Refer the client to group therapy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to conduct a thorough suicide risk assessment. When a client with major depressive disorder presents with suicidal ideation, the priority is to assess the level of risk to ensure the client's safety. This assessment helps determine the appropriate interventions, level of care, and monitoring needed. Encouraging the client to verbalize their feelings (choice B) is important, but not the priority when immediate safety is a concern. Providing positive affirmations (choice C) and referring the client to group therapy (choice D) may be beneficial interventions later on but do not address the immediate risk of harm to the client.

5. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with risperidone (Risperdal). The nurse notices that the client has a shuffling gait and tremors. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer a PRN dose of an anticholinergic medication.
• B. Document the findings and continue to monitor the client.
• C. Assess the client's blood glucose level.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A shuffling gait and tremors may indicate extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) from risperidone. The nurse's priority action should be to administer an anticholinergic medication as it can help alleviate these symptoms associated with EPS. Documenting the findings and monitoring the client (Choice B) are important but addressing the immediate symptoms takes precedence. Assessing the client's blood glucose level (Choice C) is not directly related to the observed symptoms of shuffling gait and tremors. While notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is important, it is not the priority action when dealing with EPS symptoms.

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