Nursing Elites

1. A client with an eating disorder is planning to attend group meetings with Overeaters Anonymous. The LPN/LVN describes this group to the client, knowing that which finding(s) are characteristic of this form of self-help group? Select one that does not apply.

• A. A common goal is shared by all members
• B. Members are required to remain anonymous
• C. The leader is a professional mental health care provider
• D. Attendance must be prescribed by the health care provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Overeaters Anonymous is a self-help group characterized by shared goals among members to address eating disorders. This provides a supportive environment for personal change and growth. Choice B is incorrect as members are not required to remain anonymous in Overeaters Anonymous. Choice C is incorrect as the leader in such self-help groups is usually a member who has experienced similar issues, not necessarily a professional mental health care provider. Choice D is incorrect as attendance at Overeaters Anonymous meetings is voluntary and not prescribed by a healthcare provider.

2. A client's medication sheet contains a prescription for sertraline (Zoloft). To ensure safe administration of the medication, a nurse would administer the dose:

• A. On an empty stomach
• B. At the same time each evening
• C. Evenly spaced around the clock
• D. As needed when the client complains of depression

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'At the same time each evening.' Sertraline should be administered at the same time each evening to maintain steady drug levels and effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because sertraline can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as sertraline does not need to be spaced around the clock. Choice D is incorrect as sertraline is a scheduled medication and should not be taken on an as-needed basis for complaints of depression.

3. A client who has recently been diagnosed with schizophrenia tells the LPN/LVN, 'I hear voices telling me to hurt myself.' What is the most appropriate nursing action?

• A. Encourage the client to ignore the voices.
• B. Tell the client that the voices will go away with medication.
• C. Monitor the client for signs of self-harm.
• D. Refer the client for a psychiatric evaluation.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to refer the client for a psychiatric evaluation. The client's statement indicating hearing voices telling them to hurt themselves is a serious concern and suggests a risk for self-harm. Referring the client for a psychiatric evaluation is crucial for further assessment and intervention by mental health professionals. Choice A is incorrect because ignoring the voices may not address the client's safety. Choice B is incorrect as it oversimplifies the situation and does not address the immediate risk. Choice C is not as comprehensive as referring for a psychiatric evaluation, which is necessary in this situation.

4. A client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed alprazolam (Xanax). What is the most important teaching point for the nurse to include?

• A. Take this medication at the first sign of anxiety.
• B. Do not stop taking this medication abruptly.
• C. You may experience weight gain while taking this medication.
• D. This medication may cause vivid dreams.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important teaching point for a client prescribed alprazolam is not to stop taking the medication abruptly. Abruptly stopping alprazolam, a benzodiazepine, can lead to withdrawal symptoms. It is crucial to taper off the medication under medical supervision to prevent adverse effects. Choice A is incorrect because taking the medication at the first sign of anxiety is not the key teaching point. Choice C is incorrect because weight gain is not a common side effect of alprazolam. Choice D is incorrect because vivid dreams are not a significant concern compared to the risks of abrupt discontinuation of the medication.

5. An elderly female client with advanced dementia is admitted to the hospital with a fractured hip. The client repeatedly tells the staff, 'Take me home. I want my Mommy.' Which response is best for the LPN/LVN to provide?

• A. Orient the client to the time, place, and person.
• B. Tell the client that the nurse is there and will help her.
• C. Remind the client that her mother is no longer living.
• D. Explain the seriousness of her injury and need for hospitalization.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to tell the client that the nurse is there and will help her. Providing reassurance and presence is more therapeutic in dealing with a client who has advanced dementia and is expressing a desire to go home and be with her mother. Option A might not be effective as continuously orienting the client may not alleviate her distress. Option C, reminding the client that her mother is no longer living, can be distressing and may not be appropriate in this situation. Option D, explaining the seriousness of the injury and need for hospitalization, is not the best response as it does not address the client's emotional needs at that moment.

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