HESI LPN
Mental Health HESI Practice Questions
1. A client with an eating disorder is planning to attend group meetings with Overeaters Anonymous. The LPN/LVN describes this group to the client, knowing that which finding(s) are characteristic of this form of self-help group? Select one that does not apply.
- A. A common goal is shared by all members
- B. Members are required to remain anonymous
- C. The leader is a professional mental health care provider
- D. Attendance must be prescribed by the health care provider
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Overeaters Anonymous is a self-help group characterized by shared goals among members to address eating disorders. This provides a supportive environment for personal change and growth. Choice B is incorrect as members are not required to remain anonymous in Overeaters Anonymous. Choice C is incorrect as the leader in such self-help groups is usually a member who has experienced similar issues, not necessarily a professional mental health care provider. Choice D is incorrect as attendance at Overeaters Anonymous meetings is voluntary and not prescribed by a healthcare provider.
2. A client on the psychiatric unit appears to imitate a certain nurse on the unit. The client seeks out this particular nurse and imitates the nurse's mannerisms. The nurse knows that the client is using which defense mechanism?
- A. Sublimation.
- B. Identification.
- C. Introjection.
- D. Repression.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is (B) Identification. In this scenario, the client is imitating the nurse's mannerisms, which is a form of identification, a defense mechanism where an individual adopts the characteristics or behaviors of someone they admire or view as powerful. (A) Sublimation involves channeling unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable actions, not imitation. (C) Introjection is the internalization of external qualities or attributes, not imitation. (D) Repression is the unconscious exclusion of painful thoughts or memories from awareness, which is not demonstrated in this case.
3. A client with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is experiencing a flashback. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Encourage the client to talk about the trauma.
- B. Help the client to focus on the present.
- C. Administer prescribed anti-anxiety medication.
- D. Leave the client alone to work through the flashback.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority action is to help the client focus on the present (B), which can reduce the intensity of the flashback. Encouraging discussion of the trauma (A) should be done when the client is not actively experiencing a flashback. While medication (C) may be necessary, it is not the first priority in this situation. Leaving the client alone (D) is not appropriate as they need support to manage the flashback.
4. A female client in an acute care facility has been on antipsychotic medications for the past three days. Her psychotic behaviors have decreased and she has had no adverse reactions. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. What action should the nurse initiate?
- A. Place the client on seizure precautions and monitor her frequently.
- B. Take the client's vital signs and notify the physician immediately.
- C. Describe the symptoms to the charge nurse and document them in the client's record.
- D. No action is required at this time as these are known side effects of her medications.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to initiate is to take the client's vital signs and notify the physician immediately. These symptoms may indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome, a rare but life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications, requiring immediate medical attention. Placing the client on seizure precautions and monitoring her frequently (Choice A) is not the most appropriate action in this situation. Describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them in the client's record (Choice C) delays prompt medical intervention. Choosing not to take any action (Choice D) is dangerous as the symptoms described suggest a serious condition that needs urgent evaluation and treatment.
5. A 38-year-old female client is admitted with a diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia. When her tray is brought to her, she refuses to eat and tells the nurse, 'I know you are trying to poison me with that food.' Which response would be most appropriate for the nurse to make?
- A. 'I'll leave your tray here. I am available if you need anything else.'
- B. 'You're not being poisoned. Why do you think someone is trying to poison you?'
- C. 'No one on this unit has ever died from poisoning. You're safe here.'
- D. 'I will talk to your healthcare provider about the possibility of changing your diet.'
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice (A) offers support without confrontation, allowing the client to feel safe and respected. Choices (B) and (C) directly challenge the client's delusion, which can increase anxiety and distrust. Choice (D) focuses on a non-essential issue and does not address the client's immediate emotional needs.
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