Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of substance abuse is admitted to the hospital for detoxification. What is the most important intervention for the LPN/LVN to implement?

• A. Monitor the client for signs of withdrawal.
• B. Encourage the client to express feelings about substance use.
• C. Provide the client with information about support groups.
• D. Administer prescribed medications to manage withdrawal symptoms.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering prescribed medications to manage withdrawal symptoms is the priority intervention for a client undergoing detoxification. This intervention aims to prevent severe complications that may arise during the detox process. Monitoring for signs of withdrawal (choice A) is important but providing immediate medical management through medications takes precedence to ensure the client's safety. Encouraging the client to express feelings (choice B) and providing information about support groups (choice C) are essential aspects of care but are not as urgent as administering medications to manage withdrawal symptoms.

2. The parents of a nuclear family attending a support group for parents of adolescents are being assessed by the nurse. According to Erikson, these parents who are adapting to middle adulthood should exhibit which characteristic?

• A. Loss of independence.
• B. Increased self-understanding.
• C. Isolation from society.
• D. Development of intimate relationships.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased self-understanding. According to Erikson's psychosocial development theory, middle adulthood is characterized by generativity, self-reflection, understanding, and acceptance. Middle-aged adults focus on guiding the next generation and finding meaning in their lives. Choices A and C are incorrect because loss of independence and isolation from society are maladaptive behaviors in middle adulthood. While developing and maintaining intimate relationships is important throughout life, the initial development of intimate relationships typically occurs during young adulthood, not middle adulthood.

3. A client who has recently been diagnosed with schizophrenia tells the LPN/LVN, 'I hear voices telling me to hurt myself.' What is the most appropriate nursing action?

• A. Encourage the client to ignore the voices.
• B. Tell the client that the voices will go away with medication.
• C. Monitor the client for signs of self-harm.
• D. Refer the client for a psychiatric evaluation.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to refer the client for a psychiatric evaluation. The client's statement indicating hearing voices telling them to hurt themselves is a serious concern and suggests a risk for self-harm. Referring the client for a psychiatric evaluation is crucial for further assessment and intervention by mental health professionals. Choice A is incorrect because ignoring the voices may not address the client's safety. Choice B is incorrect as it oversimplifies the situation and does not address the immediate risk. Choice C is not as comprehensive as referring for a psychiatric evaluation, which is necessary in this situation.

4. The nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing a panic attack. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Stay with the client and remain calm.
• B. Encourage the client to express their feelings.
• C. Teach the client deep-breathing exercises.
• D. Administer prescribed anti-anxiety medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority intervention is to stay with the client and remain calm (A). This provides immediate support and reassurance. Encouraging the client to express their feelings (B) and teaching deep-breathing exercises (C) are important but should come after ensuring the client's immediate safety and comfort. Administering medication (D) might be necessary, but the nurse should first focus on providing a calming presence to help the client feel safe and supported during the panic attack.

5. During the manic phase of bipolar disorder, what is the priority nursing intervention for a female client who has not slept for the past 48 hours, is hyperactive, talkative, and engaging in risky behaviors?

• A. Encourage the client to participate in a quiet activity.
• B. Provide a safe environment and limit stimuli.
• C. Administer a sedative to help the client sleep.
• D. Discuss the consequences of her risky behaviors.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct priority nursing intervention for a female client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder, who has not slept for 48 hours, is hyperactive, talkative, and engaging in risky behaviors, is to provide a safe environment and limit stimuli. This approach is crucial to prevent harm to the client and others. Encouraging a quiet activity (Choice A) may not effectively address the need for safety during the manic phase. Administering a sedative (Choice C) should be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider and does not address the immediate safety concerns. Discussing consequences of risky behaviors (Choice D) may not be effective during the manic phase when the client's judgment is impaired.

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