Nursing Elites

1. During the manic phase of bipolar disorder, what is the priority nursing intervention for a female client who has not slept for the past 48 hours, is hyperactive, talkative, and engaging in risky behaviors?

• A. Encourage the client to participate in a quiet activity.
• B. Provide a safe environment and limit stimuli.
• C. Administer a sedative to help the client sleep.
• D. Discuss the consequences of her risky behaviors.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct priority nursing intervention for a female client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder, who has not slept for 48 hours, is hyperactive, talkative, and engaging in risky behaviors, is to provide a safe environment and limit stimuli. This approach is crucial to prevent harm to the client and others. Encouraging a quiet activity (Choice A) may not effectively address the need for safety during the manic phase. Administering a sedative (Choice C) should be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider and does not address the immediate safety concerns. Discussing consequences of risky behaviors (Choice D) may not be effective during the manic phase when the client's judgment is impaired.

2. The LPN/LVN is assessing a client who is taking an antipsychotic medication. Which of the following symptoms is uniquely indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) and requires immediate attention?

• A. Very high temperature
• B. Muscular rigidity
• C. Tremors
• D. Altered consciousness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A very high temperature is a hallmark symptom of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS), which is a rare but potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. This symptom is uniquely indicative of NMS and requires immediate medical attention. Muscular rigidity, tremors, and altered consciousness can be seen in other conditions but are not as specifically linked to NMS as a very high temperature.

3. A nurse is assessing a client with dementia who is showing signs of increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon. What is the most likely explanation for the client's symptoms?

• A. Anxiety
• B. Depression
• C. Sun-downing syndrome
• D. Medication side effects

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sun-downing syndrome. Sun-downing syndrome is a phenomenon commonly seen in individuals with dementia, where they exhibit increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon or evening. This pattern of behavior is believed to be linked to disruptions in the circadian rhythm and can be triggered by factors such as fatigue, low lighting, or increased shadows during the evening. Choices A and B, anxiety and depression, may be comorbid conditions in individuals with dementia but are not the primary explanation for the symptoms described. While medication side effects (Choice D) should always be considered in a client with dementia, given the time-specific nature of the symptoms, sun-downing syndrome is the most likely explanation in this case.

4. A client is admitted to the mental health unit and reports taking extra anti-anxiety medication because, 'I'm so stressed out. I just wanted to go to sleep.' The nurse should plan one-on-one observation of the client based on which statement?

• A. What should I do? Nothing seems to help.
• B. I have been so tired lately and needed to sleep.
• C. I really think that I don't need to be here.
• D. I don't want to talk. Nothing matters anymore.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because expressing feelings of hopelessness or nihilism can be indicators of a deeper, possibly dangerous level of depression. Choice A is incorrect as it indicates seeking help, Choice B suggests fatigue, and Choice C implies denial of needing help, none of which directly signify severe depression warranting one-on-one observation.

5. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) repeatedly checks the locks on the doors. What is the best nursing intervention?

• A. Encourage the client to discuss their fears.
• B. Limit the client's time for ritualistic behavior.
• C. Assist the client to complete the ritual faster.
• D. Prevent the client from engaging in the behavior.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best nursing intervention when dealing with a client with OCD who repeatedly checks locks is to encourage the client to discuss their fears. This approach can help the client identify underlying anxiety triggers and work towards developing alternative coping mechanisms. Choice B, limiting the client's time for ritualistic behavior, may increase anxiety and worsen symptoms by creating a sense of urgency. Choice C, assisting the client to complete the ritual faster, does not address the underlying issues and may reinforce the behavior. Choice D, preventing the client from engaging in the behavior, can lead to increased anxiety and distress for the client.

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