a woman brings her 48 year old husband to the outpatient psychiatric unit and describes his behavior to the admitting nurse she states that he has bee
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HESI RN

Mental Health HESI Quizlet

1. A woman brings her 48-year-old husband to the outpatient psychiatric unit and describes his behavior to the admitting nurse. She states that he has been sleepwalking, cannot remember who he is, and exhibits multiple personalities. The nurse knows that these behaviors are often associated with:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dissociative identity disorder. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is characterized by the presence of two or more distinct personality states or identities, along with memory gaps beyond ordinary forgetfulness. The description of the husband sleepwalking, not recognizing his identity, and exhibiting multiple personalities aligns with the symptoms of DID. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) (Choice A) involves re-experiencing traumatic events, panic disorder (Choice B) is characterized by recurrent panic attacks, and obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) (Choice D) involves obsessions and compulsions. These conditions do not typically present with the specific symptoms described in the scenario.

2. A client with depression remains in bed most of the day, declines activities, and refuses meals. Which nursing problem has the greatest priority for this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Refusal to address nutritional needs.' In this scenario, the client's refusal to eat and address their nutritional needs poses an immediate threat to their physical health. Without proper nutrition, the client is at risk of malnutrition and its associated complications. While addressing social isolation, low self-esteem, and loss of interest in diversional activities are important aspects of holistic care for a client with depression, ensuring proper nutrition takes precedence due to the critical impact it has on the client's physical well-being. Therefore, the priority is to address the client's refusal to eat and address their nutritional needs to prevent further deterioration of their health.

3. A male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for recurrent negative symptoms of chronic schizophrenia and medication adjustment of risperidone (Risperdal). When the client walks to the nurse’s station in a laterally contracted position, he states that something has made his body contort into a monster. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client is experiencing a dystonic reaction due to dopamine depletion, which is a known side effect of Risperidone. Dystonia presents as abnormal muscle contractions and postures. The immediate management for this side effect is the administration of an anticholinergic medication like Benztropine (Cogentin). Choice A is incorrect as thioridazine is not the recommended medication for dystonic reactions. Choice B is incorrect as a hot pack would not effectively address the underlying cause of the dystonic reaction. Choice D is incorrect as occupational therapy is not the appropriate intervention for managing acute dystonia.

4. During an exacerbation of schizophrenia symptoms, which intervention should the nurse prioritize for a client with a history of schizophrenia?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During an exacerbation of schizophrenia symptoms, the nurse should prioritize assessing for safety risks. This is critical because individuals with schizophrenia may experience heightened risks to themselves or others during this period. Encouraging adherence to the medication regimen (Choice A) is important but ensuring immediate safety takes precedence. Increasing social interactions with peers (Choice B) and providing a high-stimulation environment (Choice C) can potentially exacerbate symptoms and should be avoided during an exacerbation.

5. A client with major depressive disorder is beginning a new antidepressant medication. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include in the discharge teaching for a client starting a new antidepressant medication is that “It may take several weeks to notice improvement.” This is because antidepressants often require several weeks before the individual starts to feel the full therapeutic effects. Choice B is incorrect because immediate effects are not typically seen with antidepressants. Choice C is incorrect as stopping the medication abruptly can lead to worsening symptoms or withdrawal effects. Choice D is incorrect as open communication with the therapist is crucial for effective management of major depressive disorder.

Similar Questions

An adolescent with a history of bipolar disorder is hospitalized during a manic episode. Which intervention is most appropriate for the nurse to include in the care plan?
A female client, who is wearing dirty clothes and has a foul body odor, comes to the clinic reporting feeling scared because she is being stalked. What action is most important for the nurse to take?
A male client who recently lost a loved one arrives at the mental health center and tells the nurse he is no longer interested in his usual activities and has not slept for several days. Which priority nursing problem should the nurse include in this client’s plan of care?
The RN is admitting a male client who takes lithium carbonate (Eskalith) twice a day. Which information should the RN report to the HCP immediately?
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