HESI LPN
Mental Health HESI 2023
1. During the admission assessment, a female client requests that her husband be allowed to stay in the room. While interviewing the client, the nurse notes a discrepancy between the client's verbal and nonverbal communication. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Pay close attention and document the nonverbal messages
- B. Ask the client's husband to interpret the discrepancy
- C. Ignore the nonverbal behavior and focus on the client's verbal messages
- D. Integrate the verbal and nonverbal messages and interpret them as one
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Noting both verbal and nonverbal cues is crucial to fully understand the client's condition and any potential underlying issues. Verbal communication may not always align with nonverbal cues, which can provide valuable insights into the client's emotional state and concerns. By paying close attention to and documenting the nonverbal messages, the nurse can gather a more comprehensive understanding of the client's situation. Asking the client's husband to interpret the discrepancy may not be appropriate as it could lead to misinterpretation or breach of confidentiality. Ignoring the nonverbal behavior could result in missing essential cues affecting the overall assessment. Integrating both verbal and nonverbal messages helps in forming a holistic view of the client's needs and concerns, enabling better care delivery.
2. What is the most important nursing intervention during the first 48 hours for a client with anorexia nervosa admitted to the hospital?
- A. Providing high-calorie, high-protein meals.
- B. Monitoring vital signs and electrolytes.
- C. Encouraging the client to talk about feelings.
- D. Observing for signs of purging.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important nursing intervention during the first 48 hours for a client with anorexia nervosa is monitoring vital signs and electrolytes (B) to assess for life-threatening complications. This helps in early detection of any physiological imbalances that could lead to serious consequences. Providing high-calorie, high-protein meals (A) is important for nutritional rehabilitation but comes after ensuring the client's physical stability. Encouraging the client to talk about feelings (C) and observing for signs of purging (D) are relevant aspects of care but are not as critical as monitoring vital signs and electrolytes in the initial phase of treatment.
3. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) repeatedly washes her hands throughout the day. What is the most therapeutic nursing intervention?
- A. Allow the client to continue the behavior to reduce anxiety.
- B. Encourage the client to talk about the underlying fears.
- C. Restrict the client's access to soap and water.
- D. Schedule a time for the client to perform the ritual.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging the client to talk about the underlying fears is the most therapeutic nursing intervention for a client with OCD who repeatedly washes her hands. By discussing the fears, the client can gain insight into the behavior and work towards reducing the compulsion. Choice A is incorrect as allowing the client to continue the behavior can perpetuate the OCD symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as restricting access to soap and water can lead to increased anxiety and distress. Choice D is incorrect as scheduling a time for the client to perform the ritual does not address the underlying fears driving the behavior.
4. Within several days of hospitalization, a client is repeatedly washing the top of the same table. Which initial intervention is best for the nurse to implement to help the client cope with anxiety related to this behavior?
- A. Administer a prescribed PRN antianxiety medication.
- B. Assist the client in identifying stimuli that precipitate the ritualistic activity.
- C. Allow time for the ritualistic behavior, then redirect the client to other activities.
- D. Teach the client relaxation and thought-stopping techniques.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Initially, the nurse should allow time for the ritualistic behavior (C) to prevent anxiety. Administering an antianxiety medication (A) may help reduce the client's anxiety temporarily but will not address the underlying issue of ineffective coping mechanisms leading to the behavior. While assisting the client in identifying triggers (B) is important for long-term therapy, the immediate focus should be on managing the behavior. Teaching relaxation and thought-stopping techniques (D) is beneficial but might be more effective once the client is more stable and receptive to learning new coping strategies.
5. A nurse is assessing a client with dementia who is showing signs of increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon. What is the most likely explanation for the client's symptoms?
- A. Anxiety
- B. Depression
- C. Sun-downing syndrome
- D. Medication side effects
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sun-downing syndrome. Sun-downing syndrome is a phenomenon commonly seen in individuals with dementia, where they exhibit increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon or evening. This pattern of behavior is believed to be linked to disruptions in the circadian rhythm and can be triggered by factors such as fatigue, low lighting, or increased shadows during the evening. Choices A and B, anxiety and depression, may be comorbid conditions in individuals with dementia but are not the primary explanation for the symptoms described. While medication side effects (Choice D) should always be considered in a client with dementia, given the time-specific nature of the symptoms, sun-downing syndrome is the most likely explanation in this case.
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