a female client request that her husband be allowed to stay in the room during the admission assessment while interviewing the client the nurse notes
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Mental Health HESI 2023

1. During the admission assessment, a female client requests that her husband be allowed to stay in the room. While interviewing the client, the nurse notes a discrepancy between the client's verbal and nonverbal communication. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Noting both verbal and nonverbal cues is crucial to fully understand the client's condition and any potential underlying issues. Verbal communication may not always align with nonverbal cues, which can provide valuable insights into the client's emotional state and concerns. By paying close attention to and documenting the nonverbal messages, the nurse can gather a more comprehensive understanding of the client's situation. Asking the client's husband to interpret the discrepancy may not be appropriate as it could lead to misinterpretation or breach of confidentiality. Ignoring the nonverbal behavior could result in missing essential cues affecting the overall assessment. Integrating both verbal and nonverbal messages helps in forming a holistic view of the client's needs and concerns, enabling better care delivery.

2. During a manic episode, what is the most appropriate nursing intervention for a client with bipolar disorder?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a manic episode, individuals with bipolar disorder often experience excessive energy and impulsivity. Providing a quiet and structured environment is crucial to help manage these symptoms. This intervention promotes stability, reduces overstimulation, and supports the client in regaining control over their behaviors. Choices A and C may exacerbate impulsivity and overstimulation, while choice D does not address the need for environmental structure and may not be effective in managing manic symptoms.

3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with major depressive disorder who is prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). What is the most important teaching point for the nurse to include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because SSRIs like fluoxetine typically take several weeks to reach their full therapeutic effect, so it's important to set realistic expectations for the client. Choice A is incorrect as dizziness is a common side effect but not the most important teaching point. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding tyramine-rich foods is more relevant for MAOIs. Choice D is incorrect as fluoxetine should be taken consistently, not only when the client feels depressed, to maintain therapeutic blood levels.

4. A client with an eating disorder is planning to attend group meetings with Overeaters Anonymous. The LPN/LVN describes this group to the client, knowing that which finding(s) are characteristic of this form of self-help group? Select one that does not apply.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Overeaters Anonymous is a self-help group characterized by shared goals among members to address eating disorders. This provides a supportive environment for personal change and growth. Choice B is incorrect as members are not required to remain anonymous in Overeaters Anonymous. Choice C is incorrect as the leader in such self-help groups is usually a member who has experienced similar issues, not necessarily a professional mental health care provider. Choice D is incorrect as attendance at Overeaters Anonymous meetings is voluntary and not prescribed by a healthcare provider.

5. A client with panic disorder is experiencing a panic attack. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Encouraging slow, deep breathing is the priority intervention during a panic attack as it can help reduce the physiological symptoms and assist the client in regaining control. This technique can help decrease hyperventilation and promote relaxation. Choice B, asking the client to describe sensations, may be beneficial after the panic attack has subsided to gain insight into triggers or manifestations. Choice C, encouraging the client to focus on a calming image, can be helpful in managing anxiety but may not be as effective during the acute phase of a panic attack. Choice D, administering a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan), should only be considered if the client does not respond to initial non-pharmacological interventions or if the symptoms are severe and unmanageable.

Similar Questions

The nurse is conducting discharge teaching for a client with schizophrenia who plans to live in a group home. Which statement is most indicative of the need for careful follow-up after discharge?
A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) spends several hours a day arranging and rearranging items in their room. What is the most therapeutic nursing intervention?
A client who is diagnosed with schizophrenia is admitted to the hospital. The nurse assesses the client's mental status. Which assessment finding is most characteristic of a client with schizophrenia?
Which action should the nurse implement first for a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal?
Which interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care for a severely depressed client with neurovegetative symptoms? (select one that does not apply.)

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