Nursing Elites

1. A 38-year-old female client is admitted with a diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia. When her tray is brought to her, she refuses to eat and tells the nurse, 'I know you are trying to poison me with that food.' Which response would be most appropriate for the nurse to make?

• A. 'I'll leave your tray here. I am available if you need anything else.'
• B. 'You're not being poisoned. Why do you think someone is trying to poison you?'
• C. 'No one on this unit has ever died from poisoning. You're safe here.'
• D. 'I will talk to your healthcare provider about the possibility of changing your diet.'

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice (A) offers support without confrontation, allowing the client to feel safe and respected. Choices (B) and (C) directly challenge the client's delusion, which can increase anxiety and distrust. Choice (D) focuses on a non-essential issue and does not address the client's immediate emotional needs.

2. The nurse observes a client who is admitted to the mental health unit and identifies that the client is talking continuously, using words that rhyme but that have no context or relationship with one topic to the next in the conversation. This client's behavior and thought processes are consistent with which syndrome?

• A. Dementia
• B. Depression
• C. Schizophrenia
• D. Chronic brain syndrome

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client is demonstrating symptoms of schizophrenia, such as disorganized speech that may include word salad (a type of communication that mixes real and imaginary words in no logical order), incoherent speech, and clanging (rhyming). Dementia (Choice A) is characterized by memory loss and cognitive decline, not by disorganized speech. Depression (Choice B) typically presents with persistent feelings of sadness and loss of interest, not disorganized speech. Chronic brain syndrome (Choice D) is a vague term and does not specifically describe the symptoms mentioned in the scenario.

3. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing distressful thoughts secondary to paranoia. Which intervention(s) should the LPN/LVN include in the plan of care? Select one intervention that does not apply.

• A. Avoid laughing when near the client
• B. Whisper when communicating near the client
• C. Increase socialization of the client among peers
• D. Have the client sign a written release of information form

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with schizophrenia experiencing distressful thoughts secondary to paranoia is to avoid laughing when near the client. This is important as laughter can be misinterpreted and exacerbate the client's paranoia. Whispering when communicating near the client is not an appropriate intervention as it may lead the client to think secretive or negative information is being shared about them, further fueling their paranoia. Increasing socialization among peers can help provide support and reduce feelings of isolation, while having the client sign a written release of information form is not directly related to managing paranoia and distressful thoughts.

4. A teenaged client, a heroin addict, is admitted to the unit for detoxification. What intervention is most important for the nurse to initiate during the first 24 hours after admission?

• A. Assign the client to a teen support group.
• B. Assess intake and output.
• C. Monitor for wheezing and apnea.
• D. Limit visitors to family members only.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing intake and output is crucial during the first 24 hours after admission for detoxification. This helps the nurse monitor the client's hydration status and kidney function as the body goes through withdrawal from heroin. Option A is incorrect because joining a support group is beneficial but may not be the priority in the initial phase of detoxification. Option C, monitoring for wheezing and apnea, is important but not the most critical intervention during the first 24 hours. Option D, limiting visitors to family members only, is not directly related to the immediate needs of assessing intake and output.

5. The nurse should hold the next scheduled dose of a client's haloperidol (Haldol) based on which assessment finding(s)?

• A. Dizziness when standing.
• B. Shuffling gait and hand tremors.
• C. Urinary retention.
• D. Fever of 102°F.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A fever (D) may indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a potentially fatal complication of antipsychotics. The healthcare provider should be contacted before administering the next dose of Haldol. Dizziness when standing (A), shuffling gait and hand tremors (B), and urinary retention (C) are all adverse effects of Haldol that, while concerning, do not pose immediate life-threatening risks compared to the potential severity of NMS indicated by a fever.

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