a 38 year old female client is admitted with a diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia when her tray is brought to her she refuses to eat and tells the nu
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Mental Health 2023

1. A 38-year-old female client is admitted with a diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia. When her tray is brought to her, she refuses to eat and tells the nurse, 'I know you are trying to poison me with that food.' Which response would be most appropriate for the nurse to make?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice (A) offers support without confrontation, allowing the client to feel safe and respected. Choices (B) and (C) directly challenge the client's delusion, which can increase anxiety and distrust. Choice (D) focuses on a non-essential issue and does not address the client's immediate emotional needs.

2. A female client with anorexia nervosa is admitted to the hospital. What is the priority assessment for the nurse to perform?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's electrolyte levels. In clients with anorexia nervosa, electrolyte imbalances can lead to serious, potentially life-threatening complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Assessing body image perception (choice A) is important but not the priority when compared to monitoring electrolyte levels. Evaluating exercise habits (choice C) and assessing the client's relationship with her family (choice D) are also important aspects of care but do not take precedence over monitoring electrolyte levels in a client with anorexia nervosa.

3. The RN is preparing to administer a prescribed dose of haloperidol (Haldol) to a client with schizophrenia. The client begins to exhibit muscle rigidity, fever, and altered mental status. What action should the RN take first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle rigidity, fever, and altered mental status are symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a potentially life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications. The RN should hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider immediately. Option A is incorrect because administering more of the medication can worsen the symptoms. Option B is not the first priority when the client is experiencing symptoms of NMS. Option D is incorrect as addressing the fever alone does not address the underlying issue of NMS caused by haloperidol.

4. A client with a history of bipolar disorder presents to the emergency department with symptoms of mania. What is the priority nursing intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering prescribed medication to manage symptoms is the priority intervention for a client with symptoms of mania. During a manic episode, the client may be at risk of harm to self or others due to impulsivity and poor judgment. Medication helps stabilize the client, reduce manic symptoms, and prevent further escalation. Providing a calm environment (choice B) is important but not the priority when the client's safety is at risk. Encouraging expression of feelings (choice C) and reinforcing medication adherence (choice D) are valuable aspects of care but addressing the acute symptoms of mania takes precedence to ensure the client's immediate safety and well-being.

5. The nurse documents that a male client with paranoid schizophrenia is delusional. Which statement by the client confirms this assessment?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Believing that the nurse is trying to poison him with pills is a clear indication of delusional paranoia, a common symptom in paranoid schizophrenia. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to paranoid delusions and are more indicative of hallucinations or other forms of delusions not specific to paranoia.

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