Nursing Elites

1. A client with terminal cancer is experiencing severe pain. The nurse plans to implement which of the following pain management strategies?

• A. Administer analgesics on a fixed schedule
• B. Administer analgesics only when the client requests
• C. Use non-pharmacological methods only
• D. Increase the dose of analgesics when the client complains of pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering analgesics on a fixed schedule is the most appropriate pain management strategy for a client with terminal cancer experiencing severe pain. This approach ensures consistent pain control and helps prevent breakthrough pain. Administering analgesics only when the client requests (Choice B) may lead to uncontrolled pain as the client may delay requesting medication until the pain becomes unbearable. Using non-pharmacological methods only (Choice C) may not provide adequate pain relief for a client experiencing severe pain. Increasing the dose of analgesics when the client complains of pain (Choice D) may result in inconsistent pain control and could lead to potential overdose or adverse effects.

2. The nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of a community health program aimed at reducing teen pregnancy rates. Which outcome indicates the program was successful?

• A. increased attendance at health education classes
• B. decreased number of repeat pregnancies among teens
• C. higher number of teens seeking prenatal care
• D. greater use of contraception among teens

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: greater use of contraception among teens. This outcome indicates successful prevention of pregnancies by demonstrating that teens are taking proactive steps to avoid unintended pregnancies. Increased attendance at health education classes (choice A) may show improved knowledge but does not directly measure the prevention of pregnancies. While a decreased number of repeat pregnancies among teens (choice B) is positive, it does not necessarily indicate prevention of initial pregnancies. A higher number of teens seeking prenatal care (choice C) is important for maternal and fetal health but does not directly reflect the prevention of teen pregnancies.

3. The social ecological model considers the complex interplay between which levels of influence?

• A. Individual, interpersonal, organizational, community, and policy
• B. Genetic, biological, environmental, social, and economic
• C. Personal, family, community, national, and global
• D. Health, wealth, education, environment, and politics

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Individual, interpersonal, organizational, community, and policy. The social ecological model examines how individual, interpersonal, organizational, community, and policy factors interact to influence health and well-being. Choice B is incorrect because it includes genetic and biological factors that are not part of the social ecological model. Choice C is incorrect as it does not include organizational and policy levels of influence. Choice D is incorrect as it includes wealth and politics, which are not typically considered in the social ecological model.

4. While assessing an Rh-positive newborn whose mother is Rh-negative, the nurse recognizes the risk for hyperbilirubinemia. Which of the following should be reported immediately?

• A. Jaundice evident at 26 hours
• B. Hematocrit of 55%
• C. Serum bilirubin of 12 mg/dL
• D. Positive Coombs test

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum bilirubin level of 12 mg/dL in a newborn is concerning and can indicate a significant risk of hyperbilirubinemia, which requires immediate medical intervention to prevent complications like kernicterus. Jaundice at 26 hours (Choice A) is a symptom, not a laboratory result, and needs monitoring but not an immediate report. Hematocrit of 55% (Choice B) may be elevated but is not indicative of hyperbilirubinemia. A positive Coombs test (Choice D) indicates the presence of antibodies on the newborn's red blood cells but does not directly correlate with the risk of hyperbilirubinemia.

5. A client is admitted for COPD. Which finding would require the nurse's immediate attention?

• A. Nausea and vomiting
• B. Restlessness and confusion
• C. Low-grade fever and cough
• D. Irritating cough and liquefied sputum

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Restlessness and confusion are signs of hypoxia and hypercapnia in a client with COPD, indicating that the client's condition may be deteriorating rapidly. Immediate attention is necessary to prevent further complications. Nausea and vomiting (Choice A) may be related to various factors but do not directly indicate respiratory distress. Low-grade fever and cough (Choice C) are common in COPD and may not require immediate intervention. Irritating cough and liquefied sputum (Choice D) are typical symptoms of COPD exacerbation but do not signal an immediate need for attention as restlessness and confusion.

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