Nursing Elites

1. A client with asthma has low-pitched wheezes present on the final half of exhalation. One hour later the client has high-pitched wheezes extending throughout exhalation. This change in assessment indicates to the nurse that the client

• A. Has increased airway obstruction
• B. Has improved airway obstruction
• C. Needs to be suctioned
• D. Exhibits hyperventilation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The higher pitched a sound is, the more narrow the airway. Therefore, the obstruction has increased or worsened. With no evidence of secretions, there is no support to indicate the need for suctioning. Wheezes changing from low-pitched to high-pitched and extending throughout exhalation suggest a progression in airway constriction, indicating an increase in airway obstruction. Option B is incorrect because the change in wheezes from low to high pitch does not suggest an improvement in airway obstruction. Option C is incorrect as there is no indication of secretions requiring suctioning. Option D is incorrect as hyperventilation is not typically associated with the described change in wheezes.

2. The nurse is planning care for a 48-year-old woman with acute severe pancreatitis. The highest priority patient outcome is

• A. maintaining normal respiratory function.
• B. expressing satisfaction with pain control.
• C. developing no ongoing pancreatic disease.
• D. having adequate fluid and electrolyte balance.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In acute severe pancreatitis, there is a risk of respiratory failure as a complication, making the maintenance of normal respiratory function the priority outcome. This patient may develop respiratory issues due to the inflammatory process affecting the diaphragm. While pain control, absence of ongoing pancreatic disease, and fluid/electrolyte balance are crucial, they are secondary to ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation to prevent respiratory compromise.

3. The patient with idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH) is receiving epoprostenol (Flolan). Which assessment information requires the most immediate action by the nurse?

• A. The oxygen saturation is 94%.
• B. The blood pressure is 98/56 mm Hg.
• C. The patient's central IV line is disconnected.
• D. The international normalized ratio (INR) is prolonged.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most immediate action required by the nurse is to address the disconnected central IV line delivering epoprostenol (Flolan). Epoprostenol has a short half-life of 6 minutes, necessitating immediate reconnection to prevent rapid clinical deterioration. While oxygen saturation, blood pressure, and INR are important parameters requiring monitoring and intervention, the priority lies in ensuring the continuous delivery of the critical medication to stabilize the patient's condition.

4. The nurse is taking the health history of a patient being treated for Emphysema and Chronic Bronchitis. After being told the patient has been smoking cigarettes for 30 years, the nurse expects to note which assessment finding?

• A. Increase in Forced Vital Capacity (FVC)
• B. A widened chest cavity
• C. Clubbed fingers
• D. An increased risk of cardiac failure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: 1. Increase in Forced Vital Capacity (FVC): Forced Vital Capacity is the volume of air exhaled from full inhalation to full exhalation. A patient with COPD would have a decrease in FVC. Therefore, this choice is incorrect. 2. A widened chest cavity: A patient with COPD often presents with a 'barrel chest,' which is seen as a widened chest cavity. Hence, a narrowed chest cavity is not an expected finding. 3. Clubbed fingers - CORRECT: Clubbed fingers are a sign of a long-term, or chronic, decrease in oxygen levels, which is commonly seen in patients with chronic respiratory conditions like Emphysema and Chronic Bronchitis. 4. An increased risk of cardiac failure: Although a patient with these conditions would indeed be at an increased risk for cardiac failure, this is a potential complication and not an assessment finding, making it an incorrect choice.

5. The clinic nurse reviews the record of an infant and notes that the primary healthcare provider has documented a diagnosis of suspected Hirschsprung's disease. The nurse reviews the assessment findings documented in the record, knowing that which sign most likely led the mother to seek healthcare for the infant?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Projectile vomiting
• C. Regurgitation of feedings
• D. Foul-smelling, ribbon-like stools

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hirschsprung's disease, also known as congenital aganglionosis or aganglionic megacolon, is a congenital anomaly characterized by an absence of ganglion cells in the rectum and other areas of the affected intestine. A key clinical manifestation of Hirschsprung's disease is chronic constipation that starts in the first month of life, leading to pellet-like or ribbon-like stools that have a foul smell. Another sign is the delayed passage or absence of meconium stool in the neonatal period. In addition to foul-smelling, ribbon-like stools, bowel obstruction (especially in the neonatal period), abdominal pain and distention, and failure to thrive are also common clinical manifestations of this disorder. Options A, B, and C are not typically associated with Hirschsprung's disease, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.

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