a client with asthma is receiving albuterol proventil the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects
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Community Health HESI Practice Questions

1. A client with asthma is receiving albuterol (Proventil). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachycardia. Albuterol can cause tachycardia as a side effect due to its stimulant effect on the heart. It acts as a beta-2 adrenergic agonist, leading to increased heart rate. Hypoglycemia (choice A) is not a common side effect of albuterol. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is also not typically associated with albuterol use. Hypotension (choice D) is less likely to occur as albuterol usually causes tachycardia rather than hypotension.

2. Tertiary prevention would best be described as:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Tertiary prevention is the stage of prevention that aims at preventing disability and maximizing the use of remaining capacity. Choice A is more aligned with rehabilitation rather than tertiary prevention. Choice B refers to primary prevention by promoting health and preventing diseases. Choice C focuses on rehabilitation specific to alcohol and drug dependence, which is a form of secondary prevention, not tertiary prevention.

3. In providing comprehensive family health care, the nurse utilizes four (4) basic processes. These are listed in the order in which they are carried out as follows:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct order for the basic processes in providing comprehensive family health care is assessment, planning, intervention, and evaluation. Assessment is the first step to gather information, followed by planning to set goals and strategies, then intervention to implement the plan, and finally evaluation to assess the outcomes. Choice A is correct as it follows this logical sequence. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not follow the correct order of these essential processes in nursing care.

4. An activity designed to diagnose and treat a disease or condition in its earliest stages, before it becomes full-blown, would be classified as:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, secondary prevention. Secondary prevention focuses on early diagnosis and intervention to prevent the progression of a disease or condition. This involves detecting and treating the illness in its early stages to reduce its impact. Choice A, primary prevention, aims to prevent the development of a disease or injury before it occurs by promoting healthy behaviors. Choice C, tertiary prevention, involves managing and improving the quality of life of individuals with established conditions to prevent complications and further deterioration. Choice D, health education, refers to providing information and promoting awareness about health issues to enable individuals to make informed decisions and adopt healthy behaviors.

5. In addition to disturbances in mental awareness and orientation, a client with cognitive impairment is also likely to show loss of ability in

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Individuals with cognitive impairment often experience difficulties in learning new information, creative thinking, and making sound judgments. Loss of ability in hearing, speech, and sight (Choice A) is more closely related to sensory impairments rather than cognitive impairment. Endurance, strength, and mobility (Choice B) are more associated with physical capabilities rather than cognitive functions. Balance, flexibility, and coordination (Choice D) are related to motor skills and physical coordination, not cognitive impairment.

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