Nursing Elites

1. A client with severe depression is prescribed sertraline. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

• A. I can stop taking this medication once I feel better.
• B. It may take 1 to 4 weeks to notice improvement in symptoms.
• C. I should avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
• D. I should take this medication in the morning with food.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients should not stop taking sertraline abruptly once they feel better without consulting their healthcare provider. It is important to complete the full course of treatment as prescribed to prevent a relapse of symptoms. Stopping the medication suddenly can lead to withdrawal symptoms and may worsen the condition. Choice B is correct because sertraline may take 1 to 4 weeks to show noticeable improvement in symptoms. Choice C is correct as alcohol should be avoided while taking sertraline due to the increased risk of side effects. Choice D is also correct as taking sertraline in the morning with food can help reduce gastrointestinal side effects.

2. A client with a productive cough and fever has been diagnosed with bacterial pneumonia and is being admitted to the unit from the emergency room. Which intervention should the practical nurse ensure has been done prior to the administration of antibiotics?

• A. Sputum specimen
• B. Set of vital signs
• C. Electrocardiogram
• D. Glucometer check

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before initiating antibiotic therapy in a client with bacterial pneumonia, obtaining a sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity is essential. This helps identify the specific bacteria causing the infection and guides the selection of the most effective antibiotic treatment.

3. A client with a history of stroke is prescribed clopidogrel. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Bleeding
• B. Bruising
• C. Nausea
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works to prevent blood clots, but it can also increase the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, blood in urine or stool, or unusual bleeding from the gums. Prompt identification and management of bleeding are crucial to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while bruising and other symptoms can occur as a result of bleeding, they are not the primary side effect to monitor for with clopidogrel. Nausea and headache are less commonly associated with clopidogrel use compared to bleeding.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed sitagliptin. The nurse should include which instruction in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Take this medication with meals.
• B. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Report any signs of pancreatitis to the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the teaching plan for a client prescribed sitagliptin is to report any signs of pancreatitis to the healthcare provider. Sitagliptin is generally taken with meals to reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Therefore, choice A, 'Take this medication with meals,' is incorrect. Sitagliptin does not have specific interactions with alcohol, so there is no need to advise the client to avoid alcohol, making choice B incorrect. Taking sitagliptin on an empty stomach is not recommended, so choice C is also incorrect. Pancreatitis is a rare but serious side effect of sitagliptin, so it is crucial for the client to report any signs or symptoms to their healthcare provider promptly.

5. The healthcare professional is preparing client teaching materials on commonly used medications. Which client is most likely to benefit from a client education package about simvastatin?

• A. A 50-year-old male with a history of angina
• B. A 75-year-old male with bone cancer
• C. An 18-year-old pregnant female with diabetes
• D. A 40-year-old female with frequent vaginal infections

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Simvastatin is a medication used to lower cholesterol levels and prevent cardiovascular diseases. It is commonly prescribed for individuals at risk of heart-related conditions. Angina is a symptom of underlying heart disease, and individuals with this condition would benefit most from simvastatin to help manage their cholesterol levels and reduce the risk of cardiovascular events. Therefore, the 50-year-old male with a history of angina is the most suitable candidate for client education regarding simvastatin. Choices B, C, and D are not the most appropriate candidates for simvastatin education because bone cancer, pregnancy with diabetes, and frequent vaginal infections are not conditions typically treated with simvastatin.

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