HESI LPN
Pharmacology HESI 2023
1. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed diazepam. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?
- A. Drowsiness
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Nausea
- D. Headache
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct. Diazepam, a medication commonly used to treat anxiety disorders, can lead to drowsiness as a potential side effect. It is important for clients taking diazepam to be cautious about activities that require alertness, such as driving, due to the risk of drowsiness associated with this medication. Choice B, dry mouth, is not typically associated with diazepam use. Choice C, nausea, is less common as a side effect of diazepam compared to drowsiness. Choice D, headache, is also less common and typically not a significant side effect of diazepam.
2. A healthy 68-year-old client asks the practical nurse (PN) whether they should take the pneumococcal vaccine. Which statement should the PN offer to the client that provides the most accurate information about this vaccine?
- A. The vaccine is given annually before the flu season to those older than 50 years.
- B. The immunization is recommended for children younger than 2 years old and all adults 65 years or older.
- C. The vaccine is for all ages and is given primarily to those traveling overseas to areas of infection.
- D. The vaccine will prevent the occurrence of pneumococcal pneumonia for up to 5 years.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it is usually recommended that children younger than 2 years old and adults 65 years or older get vaccinated against pneumococcal disease. This is because these age groups are more susceptible to severe complications from the infection. While the vaccine may be recommended for certain individuals with specific medical conditions at any age, the primary target groups are as mentioned in option B. Option A is incorrect as the pneumococcal vaccine is not given annually like the flu vaccine. Option C is incorrect because the vaccine is not primarily for travelers but for certain age groups and individuals with medical conditions at risk. Option D is incorrect as the vaccine's duration of protection can vary, and it is not guaranteed to prevent pneumococcal pneumonia for up to 5 years.
3. What instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a client with diabetes mellitus type 2 prescribed alogliptin?
- A. Report any signs of pancreatitis to the healthcare provider.
- B. Take this medication with meals.
- C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
- D. Report any signs of heart failure to the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Report any signs of pancreatitis to the healthcare provider. Alogliptin is associated with an increased risk of pancreatitis. Therefore, clients should be instructed to report any signs of pancreatitis, such as severe abdominal pain, to their healthcare provider promptly. This is essential for early detection and management of this serious adverse effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific side effect associated with alogliptin.
4. The client is being instructed on the correct technique for using... what to provide the client?
- A. Angle the tip of the inhaler upwards while spraying
- B. Hold one nostril closed while spraying the other nostril
- C. Avoid shaking the inhaler immediately before using
- D. Use the inhaler when first awakening in the morning
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct technique for using an inhaler for allergic rhinitis involves holding one nostril closed while spraying the other nostril to ensure proper delivery of the medication. This technique helps direct the medication into the nasal passages for optimal effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect as it refers to an incorrect technique for inhaler use. Choice C is incorrect as shaking the inhaler is often necessary to ensure proper mixing of the medication. Choice D is incorrect as the timing of inhaler use is typically based on individual preferences or healthcare provider recommendations, not specifically tied to the morning.
5. A client vomits 30 minutes after receiving a dose of hydromorphone on the first postoperative day. What initial intervention is best for the practical nurse (PN) to implement?
- A. Obtain a prescription for nasogastric intubation.
- B. Administer a prn dose of ondansetron.
- C. Reduce the next scheduled dose of hydromorphone.
- D. Assess the client's abdomen and bowel sounds.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the client's vomiting is likely due to the hydromorphone administration, indicating a need for an antiemetic such as ondansetron to address the nausea. Nasogastric intubation (Choice A) is not necessary at this point as the client is vomiting, not experiencing an obstruction. While reducing the dose of hydromorphone (Choice C) may be considered later, the immediate focus should be managing the client's symptoms. Assessing the client's abdomen and bowel sounds (Choice D) can be important but is not the initial priority when addressing the vomiting post hydromorphone administration.
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