a client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed diazepam the nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have wh
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Pharmacology HESI 2023

1. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed diazepam. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct. Diazepam, a medication commonly used to treat anxiety disorders, can lead to drowsiness as a potential side effect. It is important for clients taking diazepam to be cautious about activities that require alertness, such as driving, due to the risk of drowsiness associated with this medication. Choice B, dry mouth, is not typically associated with diazepam use. Choice C, nausea, is less common as a side effect of diazepam compared to drowsiness. Choice D, headache, is also less common and typically not a significant side effect of diazepam.

2. The nurse is caring for a patient with short-term persistent diarrhea. Which class of medication would the nurse anticipate giving?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Probiotics are the correct choice in this scenario as they help restore normal gut flora, which can be effective in treating diarrhea by promoting a healthy balance of bacteria in the intestines. Lubricants are used to ease bowel movements and are not indicated for treating diarrhea. Adsorbents work by binding to toxins in the gut, which is not the primary mechanism needed for treating diarrhea. Anticholinergics are more commonly used for conditions like overactive bladder and not for short-term persistent diarrhea.

3. A client with hypertension is prescribed clonidine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Clonidine, a medication used to treat hypertension, can cause a lowering of blood pressure leading to hypotension as a potential side effect. Monitoring for hypotension is essential to prevent complications such as dizziness, fainting, or falls. Option B, Tachycardia, is incorrect as clonidine typically causes bradycardia or a decreased heart rate. Option C, Dizziness, can occur due to hypotension caused by clonidine. Option D, Hyperglycemia, is not a common side effect associated with clonidine use.

4. A 59-year-old client is prescribed furosemide 40 mg twice a day for the management of heart failure. The practical nurse should monitor the client for the development of which complication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the kidneys, leading to increased potassium excretion and potentially causing hypokalemia. Hypokalemia can lead to cardiac irregularities, making it crucial for the practical nurse to monitor the client for this electrolyte imbalance. Choice B, Hyperchloremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Choices C and D, Hypercalcemia and Hypophosphatemia, are not common complications of furosemide therapy.

5. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed clozapine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Agranulocytosis. Clozapine is known to potentially cause agranulocytosis, a serious condition characterized by a dangerously low white blood cell count. Monitoring white blood cell counts is crucial to detect this side effect early and prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because dry mouth, weight gain, and hypersalivation are not typically associated with clozapine use. While dry mouth can be a common side effect of some antipsychotic medications, it is not specifically linked to clozapine. Weight gain can occur with certain antipsychotics, but clozapine is more commonly associated with metabolic side effects. Hypersalivation is not a common side effect of clozapine.

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