HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health Practice Questions
1. A nurse is assessing a client with dementia who is showing signs of increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon. What is the most likely explanation for the client's symptoms?
- A. Anxiety
- B. Depression
- C. Sun-downing syndrome
- D. Medication side effects
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sun-downing syndrome. Sun-downing syndrome is a phenomenon commonly seen in individuals with dementia, where they exhibit increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon or evening. This pattern of behavior is believed to be linked to disruptions in the circadian rhythm and can be triggered by factors such as fatigue, low lighting, or increased shadows during the evening. Choices A and B, anxiety and depression, may be comorbid conditions in individuals with dementia but are not the primary explanation for the symptoms described. While medication side effects (Choice D) should always be considered in a client with dementia, given the time-specific nature of the symptoms, sun-downing syndrome is the most likely explanation in this case.
2. The LPN/LVN is assessing a client's intelligence. Which factor should the nurse remember during this part of the mental status exam?
- A. Acute psychiatric illnesses impair intelligence.
- B. Intelligence is influenced by social and cultural factors.
- C. Poor concentration skills suggest limited intelligence.
- D. The inability to think abstractly indicates limited intelligence.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because intelligence is influenced by social and cultural factors. Social and cultural beliefs can impact how intelligence is perceived and expressed. Choice A is incorrect because acute psychiatric illnesses can affect cognitive functioning but not necessarily intelligence. Choice C is incorrect because poor concentration skills do not always correlate with limited intelligence. Choice D is incorrect because the inability to think abstractly is just one aspect of intelligence and does not solely indicate limited intelligence.
3. A 35-year-old male client on the psychiatric ward of a general hospital believes that someone is trying to poison him. The nurse understands that a client's delusions are most likely related to his
- A. early childhood experiences involving authority issues.
- B. anger about being hospitalized.
- C. low self-esteem.
- D. phobic fear of food.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: low self-esteem. Delusions of persecution, like being poisoned, are often rooted in underlying issues of low self-esteem and trust. Option A is incorrect because the delusion is not necessarily related to early childhood experiences involving authority issues. Option B is incorrect as there is no information provided that suggests the client's delusion is driven by anger about being hospitalized. Option D is incorrect as the delusion is about being poisoned, not a phobic fear of food.
4. A 72-year-old female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depression. Which statement by the client should be of greatest concern to the nurse and require further assessment?
- A. "I will die if my cat dies."
- B. "I don't feel like eating this morning."
- C. "I just went to my friend's funeral."
- D. "Don't you have more important things to do?"
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Sometimes a client will use an analogy to describe themselves, and (A) would be an indication for conducting a suicide assessment. (B) could have a variety of etiologies, and while further assessment is indicated, this statement does not indicate potential suicide. The normal grief process differs from depression, and at this client's age, peer/cohort deaths are more frequent, so (C) would be within normal limits. (D) is an expression of low self-esteem typical of depression. Choices (B), (C), and (D) are examples of decreased energy and mood levels which would negate suicide ideation at this time.
5. A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa. What is the most important intervention for the LPN/LVN to implement during the first 24 hours of hospitalization?
- A. Encourage the client to eat small, frequent meals.
- B. Monitor the client's vital signs and weight.
- C. Establish a trusting relationship with the client.
- D. Provide emotional support to the client.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's vital signs and weight. This intervention is crucial in assessing the severity of the client's condition and planning appropriate care. Vital signs and weight monitoring help in evaluating the client's physiological status and identifying any immediate concerns related to anorexia nervosa. Choices A, C, and D are important aspects of care for a client with anorexia nervosa; however, during the initial 24 hours of hospitalization, monitoring vital signs and weight takes precedence as it provides essential data for the client's ongoing management and treatment.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access