Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client with dementia who is showing signs of increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon. What is the most likely explanation for the client's symptoms?

• A. Anxiety
• B. Depression
• C. Sun-downing syndrome
• D. Medication side effects

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sun-downing syndrome. Sun-downing syndrome is a phenomenon commonly seen in individuals with dementia, where they exhibit increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon or evening. This pattern of behavior is believed to be linked to disruptions in the circadian rhythm and can be triggered by factors such as fatigue, low lighting, or increased shadows during the evening. Choices A and B, anxiety and depression, may be comorbid conditions in individuals with dementia but are not the primary explanation for the symptoms described. While medication side effects (Choice D) should always be considered in a client with dementia, given the time-specific nature of the symptoms, sun-downing syndrome is the most likely explanation in this case.

2. A client with PTSD is experiencing flashbacks and nightmares. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Encourage the client to talk about the flashbacks.
• B. Assist the client in developing coping strategies.
• C. Discuss relaxation techniques with the client.
• D. Refer the client to a PTSD support group.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging the client to talk about the flashbacks is the most appropriate initial intervention for a client with PTSD experiencing flashbacks and nightmares. This intervention helps the client express their feelings, thoughts, and experiences related to the trauma they are going through. It can assist in processing the traumatic events and starting the healing process. Choice B, assisting the client in developing coping strategies, is important but should come after the client has started to verbalize and process their experiences. Choice C, discussing relaxation techniques, may be beneficial later in the treatment process but may not be as effective initially as addressing the traumatic experiences. Choice D, referring the client to a PTSD support group, is also valuable but may not be as immediate as encouraging the client to talk about their flashbacks to begin the therapeutic process.

3. A client who is diagnosed with schizophrenia is admitted to the hospital. The nurse assesses the client's mental status. Which assessment finding is most characteristic of a client with schizophrenia?

• A. Mood swings.
• B. Extreme sadness.
• C. Manipulative behavior.
• D. Flat affect.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Flat affect. Flat affect, which is a lack of emotional expression, is highly characteristic of schizophrenia. Mood swings (choice A) are more indicative of mood disorders rather than schizophrenia. Extreme sadness (choice B) could be seen in depression but is not as specific to schizophrenia. Manipulative behavior (choice C) is not a defining characteristic of schizophrenia; it may be seen in various psychiatric conditions but is not the most characteristic feature of schizophrenia.

4. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations that command him to harm himself. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Ensure the client is not left alone.
• B. Document the content of the hallucinations.
• C. Administer PRN antipsychotic medication.
• D. Encourage the client to ignore the voices.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure the client is not left alone. When a client with schizophrenia is having auditory hallucinations that command self-harm, the priority is to ensure the client's safety. Leaving the client alone may increase the risk of self-harm. Documenting the content of the hallucinations (choice B) is important but not the priority when immediate safety is a concern. Administering PRN antipsychotic medication (choice C) may be necessary but is not the priority over ensuring the client's immediate safety. Encouraging the client to ignore the voices (choice D) is not as effective as ensuring the client's safety by being present and providing support.

5. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) spends hours each day washing their hands. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate initially?

• A. Allow the client to continue the behavior to reduce anxiety.
• B. Set strict limits on the time allowed for handwashing.
• C. Distract the client with other activities.
• D. Encourage the client to participate in a support group.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Initially, it is most appropriate to allow the client to continue the behavior to reduce anxiety (A). For clients with OCD, abruptly stopping compulsive behaviors can lead to increased anxiety and distress. Setting strict limits (B) may exacerbate anxiety at first. Distraction with other activities (C) may not address the underlying issue effectively. While support groups (D) can be beneficial, they are typically introduced after establishing trust and gradually working on reducing compulsive behaviors.

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