Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client with dementia who is showing signs of increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon. What is the most likely explanation for the client's symptoms?

• A. Anxiety
• B. Depression
• C. Sun-downing syndrome
• D. Medication side effects

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sun-downing syndrome. Sun-downing syndrome is a phenomenon commonly seen in individuals with dementia, where they exhibit increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon or evening. This pattern of behavior is believed to be linked to disruptions in the circadian rhythm and can be triggered by factors such as fatigue, low lighting, or increased shadows during the evening. Choices A and B, anxiety and depression, may be comorbid conditions in individuals with dementia but are not the primary explanation for the symptoms described. While medication side effects (Choice D) should always be considered in a client with dementia, given the time-specific nature of the symptoms, sun-downing syndrome is the most likely explanation in this case.

2. Select the nursing interventions for a hospitalized client with mania who is exhibiting manipulative behavior. Select one intervention that does not apply.

• A. Communicate expected behaviors to the client
• B. Ensure that the client knows that he or she is not in charge of the nursing unit
• C. Assist the client in identifying ways of setting limits on personal behaviors
• D. Follow through about the consequences of behavior in a non-punitive manner

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ensuring that the client knows they are not in charge of the nursing unit is not a helpful nursing intervention for managing manipulative behavior in a client with mania. Communicating expected behaviors, assisting with limit-setting, and following through on consequences in a non-punitive manner are more appropriate interventions to address manipulative behavior.

3. A client with bipolar disorder, manic phase, is admitted to the psychiatric unit. Which meal is most appropriate for this client?

• A. Spaghetti and meatballs
• B. Chicken salad sandwich
• C. Steak and potatoes
• D. Hamburger and fries

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A chicken salad sandwich (B) is the most appropriate choice as it is easy to eat on the go, which is important for a client in the manic phase who may have difficulty sitting still for a meal. Spaghetti and meatballs (A) and steak and potatoes (C) require more time and effort to eat, which may be challenging for a client experiencing mania. While hamburger and fries (D) could be an option, a chicken salad sandwich is a healthier and more manageable choice, considering the client's potential hyperactive state.

4. Several clients with chronic mental illness and multiple substance abuse histories live in a group residential home and attend a daycare mental health facility where group and individual therapies are provided. The RN finds the common bathroom at the facility with sputum on the walls, urine in the sink and on the floors, and the toilet stopped up with tissue, paper towels, and feces. What is the priority issue that the RN should address?

• A. Medication non-compliance.
• B. Number of bathroom facilities.
• C. Infection control.
• D. Acting out behaviors.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority issue that the RN should address is infection control. The unsanitary conditions in the bathroom, with sputum on the walls, urine in the sink and on the floors, and the toilet clogged with tissue, paper towels, and feces, pose a significant health risk to all residents and staff. Addressing infection control is crucial to prevent the spread of diseases and ensure the well-being of everyone in the facility. Medication non-compliance is important but not the priority in this situation. The number of bathroom facilities, while relevant, is not the immediate concern when faced with unsanitary conditions. Acting out behaviors, though a valid concern in mental health settings, are not the priority when faced with such unsanitary and potentially infectious conditions.

5. A client with depression is started on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). What should the LPN/LVN include in the teaching plan?

• A. Take the medication with food to avoid nausea.
• B. You may start feeling better within 1 to 2 weeks.
• C. The medication may take 4 to 6 weeks to become fully effective.
• D. You may experience side effects such as dry mouth or dizziness.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Teaching the client that the medication may take 4 to 6 weeks to become fully effective is crucial as it helps set realistic expectations. While choice A is important to reduce nausea, it is not the most critical information to provide initially. Choice B is incorrect as improvement usually occurs after several weeks of treatment, not within 1 to 2 weeks. Choice D is also relevant, but informing about the full effectiveness of the medication is more important for long-term adherence.

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