HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health Practice Exam
1. A client in the mental health unit believes that the food is being poisoned. What intervention(s) would be helpful when attempting to encourage the client to eat? Select one that does not apply.
- A. Use open-ended questions to encourage client dialogue
- B. Offer opinions about the necessity for adequate nutrition
- C. Focus on the client's self-disclosure about food preferences
- D. Identify the reasons the client has for not wanting to eat
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Using open-ended questions and focusing on the client's self-disclosure about food preferences can help build rapport and trust with the client, encouraging them to eat. Identifying the reasons the client has for not wanting to eat can provide insights into their concerns. However, offering opinions about the necessity for adequate nutrition may come across as imposing views on the client, potentially leading to resistance. This approach may not be as effective in encouraging the client to eat as it could create a power dynamic that hinders the therapeutic relationship.
2. The RN is preparing to administer a prescribed dose of haloperidol (Haldol) to a client with schizophrenia. The client begins to exhibit muscle rigidity, fever, and altered mental status. What action should the RN take first?
- A. Administer the haloperidol as prescribed.
- B. Monitor the client's vital signs closely.
- C. Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider.
- D. Give the client an antipyretic for the fever.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Muscle rigidity, fever, and altered mental status are symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a potentially life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications. The RN should hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider immediately. Option A is incorrect because administering more of the medication can worsen the symptoms. Option B is not the first priority when the client is experiencing symptoms of NMS. Option D is incorrect as addressing the fever alone does not address the underlying issue of NMS caused by haloperidol.
3. What is the priority intervention for a client with major depressive disorder admitted to the psychiatric unit with suicidal ideation?
- A. Conduct a thorough suicide risk assessment.
- B. Encourage the client to verbalize their feelings.
- C. Provide the client with positive affirmations.
- D. Refer the client to group therapy.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to conduct a thorough suicide risk assessment. When a client with major depressive disorder presents with suicidal ideation, the priority is to assess the level of risk to ensure the client's safety. This assessment helps determine the appropriate interventions, level of care, and monitoring needed. Encouraging the client to verbalize their feelings (choice B) is important, but not the priority when immediate safety is a concern. Providing positive affirmations (choice C) and referring the client to group therapy (choice D) may be beneficial interventions later on but do not address the immediate risk of harm to the client.
4. The occupational health nurse is working with a female employee who was just notified that her child was involved in a MVA and taken to the hospital. The employee states, 'I can't believe this. What should I do?' Which response is best for the nurse to provide in this crisis?
- A. Tell me what you think should happen.
- B. How serious was the collision?
- C. What do you think you should do?
- D. Call for transportation to the hospital.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Providing immediate practical support, such as arranging transportation to the hospital, is the best response in this crisis situation. It helps the employee to take immediate action and supports her in a highly stressful moment. Choice A focuses on the employee's thoughts rather than providing immediate aid. Choice B is not a priority as the severity can be addressed later. Choice C puts the decision-making burden on the employee at a time of distress, which is not ideal. Therefore, choice D is the most appropriate response in this situation.
5. A client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder is pacing the hallway and talking rapidly. What is the best intervention for the nurse?
- A. Encourage the client to join a group activity.
- B. Offer the client a high-calorie snack and a drink.
- C. Direct the client to a quieter area of the unit.
- D. Instruct the client to sit down and relax.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the manic phase of bipolar disorder, clients often exhibit increased activity and may burn a lot of energy. Offering a high-calorie snack and a drink is the best intervention as it helps maintain their nutritional needs while allowing them to continue their activity. Encouraging the client to join a group activity (Choice A) may further stimulate their behavior. Directing the client to a quieter area (Choice C) might not address their energy expenditure. Instructing the client to sit down and relax (Choice D) may not be effective during the manic phase.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access